BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

1. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the

resistance of -

a) Each of them increases

b) Each of them decreases

c) Copper increases and germanium decreases

d) Copper decreases and germanium increases
2. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -

a) VTVM

b) Cathode ray oscilloscope

c) Moving iron voltmeter

d) Digital multimeter
3. When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –

a) Both will have equal value of resistivity

b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity

c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon

d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium
4.

When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –

a) s = 0; s = -6

b) s = 0; s = -3

c) s = 0; s = -1

d) s = -3; s = -4
5.

5. For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –

a) drop back to acceptor impurity states

b) drop to donor impurity states

c) Virtually leave the crystal

d) recombine with the electrons
6.

The location of lighting arrestor is –

a) Near the transformer

b) Near the circuit breaker

c) Away from the transformer

d) None
7.

Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –

a) Increased

b) Decreased

c) Neither a nor b

d) Both a and b
8.

Telemetering is a method of –

a) Counting pulses sent over long distances

b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another

c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance

d) None
9.

When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is

100 ohms then the value of DR will be –

a) 2W

b) 3W

c) 4W

d) 1W
10.

As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –

a) Becomes zero

b) Abruptly decreases

c) Abruptly increases

d) Remains constant
11.

11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –

a) Thermocouple

b) Piezoelectric pick up

c) Photo-Voltaic cell

d) LCD
12.

When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –

a) Common base

b) Common collector

c) Common emitter

d) Emitter follower
13.

In a JFET gates are always –

a) forward biased

b) reverse biased

c) unbiased

d) none
14.

The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –

a) insulated gate

b) electrons

c) channel

d) P-N junction
15. An SCR conducts appreciable current when –

a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode

b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode

c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode

d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode
16.

Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -

a) An indirect band gap semiconductor

b) A direct band gap semiconductor

c) A wide band gap semiconductor

d) A narrow band gap semiconductor
17.

An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –

a) 111V

b) 100V

c) 90.09V

d) 70.7V
18. When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –

a) 5W

b) 10 W

c) 15 W

d) 20 W
19. 19. In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be –


20. Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –

a) Z11 = Z22

b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22

c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21

d) Z12 = Z21
21. When the transmission parameters of the following network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3 then the value of Zin is –

c) 3W

d) 4W
22. The value of G12 or for the circuit shown in the fig. is –

23. The two port network of the fig. shown has open circuit impedance parameters given by matrix –


24. In the circuit shown, the switch closes at t = 0. The voltage across 4mF capacitor in ideal condition changes to –

a) 0

b) 16V

c) 15V

d) 24V


25. While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are –

a) replaced by opens

b) replaced by 'shorts'

c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources

d) converted into equivalent voltage sources
26. Maxwell's loop current method of solving electrical networks –

a) uses branch currents

b) utilizes kirchhoff's voltage law

c) is confined to single-loop circuits

d) is a network reduction method
27. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 – j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be

a)(30 + j40 ) ohms

b)( 30 – j40 ) ohms

c)(50 + j40 ) ohms

d)(50 – j40 ) ohms
28. For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be-

a) Elliptically polarized

b) Linearly polarized

c) Right circularly polarized

d) Left circularly polarized
29. A yagi antenna has a driven antenna-

a) Only

b) With a reflector

c) With one or more directors

d) With a reflector and one or more directors
30. The number of lobes on each side of a 3l resonant antenna is –

a) 3

b) 6

c) 2

d) 1
31. The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as-

32. Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is -

a) 72 W

b) 144W

c) 288 W

d) 216W
33. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by -

a)100%

b)150 %

c)50%

d)0%
34. On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest -

a) During morning hours

b) Around mid-day

c) During nights

d) In the afternoon
35. TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR -

a) System B

b) System I

c) System M

d) System X
36. For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 mA meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to –

a) 1k ohm/volt can be used

b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used

c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used

d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used
37. In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is –

a) Electrical conduction

b) Electrical – capacitive

c) Absorption of radiation

d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity


38. The flow rate of elctrically conducting liquid without any suspended practicle cannot be measured by –

a) turbine flow meters

b) electromagnetic flow meters

c) ultrasonic flow meters

d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters


39. The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is –

a) an incremental encoder

b) an abosolute encoder

c) LVDT

d) a strain gauge


40. When variable reluctance type techometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be–

a) 4800 rpm

b) 5400 rpm

c) 6000 rpm

d) 7200 rpm.
41. 41. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to –

a) 1.732 V

b) 1.0 V

c) 0.7746 V

d) 0.5V
42. One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT is-

a) strain gauge

b) pitot tube

c) Bourden tube

d) Rotameter
43. It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be –

a) chromel - constantan

b) Iron - constantan

c) chromel - alumel

d) platinum- rhodium
44. In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI is-

a) f

b) 2 f

c) f/2

d) 3 f
45. Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit

a) Type A chopper

b) Type B chopper

c) Type C chopper

d) Type D chopper
46. Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated with-

a) peak point

b) valley point

c) any point between peak and valley

d) after the valley point
47.

Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA-

a) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR

b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR

c) B may operate as a transistor

d) none of the above
48.

In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-

a) zero

b) source voltage

c) source voltage minus the inductance drop

d) average value of the conducting phase voltages
49.

Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconverters-

a) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation

b) step up CC requires no forced commutation

c) load commutated CC works on line commutation

d) none of the above
50.

In a 3 phase full converter if load current is I and ripple free, then average thyristor current is-

a)

b)

c)

d)
51. In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it gives-

a) Large voltage gain

b) Low output impedance

c) Large isolation between the input and the output

d) None of the above
52. Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because-

a) it can withstand high temperature

b) ensures low PIV of the diodes

c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter

d) reduces ripple content
53. An amplifier of class A is that in which -

a) Base is biased to cut – off

b) Ic flows most of the time

c) Ie flows all the time

d) Vc often raises to Vcc
54. A transistor is in active region when-

a) IB = bIC

b) IC=bIB

c) IC=IE

d) IC=IB
55. For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it provides-

a) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch

b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch

c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch

d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch
56. . A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will be-

a) 100 W

b) 99.01 W

c) 5m W

d) 101kW
57. An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of -

a) 110 MHz

b) 112 Hz

c) 114 MHz

d) 120 MHz
58. In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will become-

a) OV

b) VCC – IBRB

c) Equal to VCC

d) None of the above
59. See the circuit shown and choose the correct option –

a) Only red will glow

b) Only green will glow

c) Both red and green will glow

d) Neither red nor green will glow
60. A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be –

a) 0.1A

b) 0.5A

c) 1.0A

d) 10.0A
61. A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate –

a) storage time

b) turn – off time

c) turn – on time

d) delay time
62. . The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is –

a) (A + B)C + DE

b) AB + C(D + E)

c) (A + B)C + D + E

d) (AB + C) . DE
63. Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is –

a) solid iron motor

b) squirrel cage rotor

c) drag cup rotor

d) both b and c
64. Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its –

a) higher bandwidth

b) higher output

c) higher frequency

d) higher gain
65. The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for –

a) addition

b) subtraction

c) both addition and subtraction

d) multiplication
66. The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is –

67. A lag compensator is basically a –

a) high pass filter

b) band pass filter

c) low pass filter

d) band elimination filter
68. Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig is-



69. The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is

Mark the correct statement regarding this system

1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4

2. The system type one.

3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

Codes

a) 1,2 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 3


70. If the rotor’s resistance and reactance are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, then-

71. In a PID controlles the transfer function G(s) is-

72. Transfer function can be approximated by the system-

73. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by



The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximately-

a) 5850 kHz

b) 585 kHz

c) 5850 Hz

d) 585 Hz
74. An open loop transfer function is given by

Its – loci will be-


75. . The output signals amplitudes for 1's and 0's in an ADM transmission systems are –

a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed

b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable

c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable

d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed
76. Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart –

a) Because of atmospheric attenuation

b) Because of Output tube power limitations

c) Because of the earth's curvature

d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive
77. . The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are called-

a) line amplifier

b) equalizing amplifiers

c) compradors

d) repeaters.
78. Diversity reception in used to-

a) increase receiver sensitivity

b) improve receiver selectivity

c) overcome degrading effect of fading

d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning
79. Mark out transferred electron device in the following-

a) BARITT dived

b) IMPATT dived

c) Gunn divde

d) Step recovery diode
80. In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are -

a) syne

b) video

c) sweep

d) sound
81. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in the-

a) mains transformer

b) vertical output stage

c) horizontal output stage

d) horizontal deflection oscillator
82. In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2 , minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses)


83.

. The frquency range for satellite broad casting is –

a) 30 MHz – 300MHz

b) 30 MHz – 3 GHz

c) 3 GHz – 30 GHz

d) 30 GHz – 300 GHz
84.

Iris is used to –

a) Over come power loss

b) Over come bending effect

c) Over come mismatch error

d) Over come twist effect
85.

In schotty barrier diode current flows because of –

a) Majority carriers

b) Minority carriers

c) Majority and minority carriers

d) None
86.

. Which antennas are used in microwave communication –

a) long wave antennas

b) Rhombic antennas

c) Parabolaidal antennas

d) All of above
87.

Among translator & time of sight system capacity –

a) Of translator is more

b) Of line of sight is more

c) Having equal capacity

d) No relation such as
88.

No of T-state required for memory read or write operation-

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 6


89. 89. In data transfer operation which flag get affected)-

a) 3140 flog.

b) carry flog

c) sign flog.

d) none
90.

In flowchart which figure represents process like subroutine-



.


91. The storage and retrieval of data on stacks should follow sequence-

a) last in first out

b) first in first out

c) random in random out

d) none


92. . While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearing-

a) each instruction

b) after interval of two instruction

c) after a subroutine

d) at the end of program.


93.

93. In which error check technique of data communication 2's complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with data-

a) Even parity

b) odd parity

c) check scans

d) cyclic redundancy


94. . Program execution hierarchy decides which operator-

a) is most important

b) is used first

c) is fastest

d) operators on largest number
95.
. (375)10 = (----)8

a) 550

b) 557

c) 567

d) 577
96. To obtain 2048 8 memory using 128 8 memory chip how many IC required-

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16
97. A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.-

a) 10001

b) 01110

c)00111

d) 11100
98. Is the Universal logic gate-

a) AND

b) OR

c) NAND

d) X-OR
99. A monostable state in multivibrator means-

a) which returns itself to its single stable state

b) the state used only once in circuit

c) the state of circuit can not get changed

d) the state of circuit always changing
100. For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred -

a) T FF

b) SR FF

c) D FF

d) JKFF
101. His handwriting was not ----- so I could not read his note –

a) attractive

b) eligible

c) clear

d) legible
102. They started to ----- people into the theatre only at six -

a) enter

b) admit

c) follow

d) accept
103. I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word).

a) ending

b) ordinary

c) durable

d) cheap
104. Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'evident'-

a) doubtful

b) unimportant

c) disagreed

d) understood
105. I expressed by disagreement ------ him on that issue-

a) between

b) with

c) about

d) for
106. ‘Sugarbowl’ of the world is -

a) India

b) Cuba

c) Brazil

d) USA
107. Palk strait separates-

a) India and Srilanka

b) India and Burma

c) Britain and France

d) Malaysia and Sumatra
108. The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element are-

a) 1

b) 5

c) 2

d) 10
109. Tides in the sea are caused by-

a) Effect of sun

b) Effect of moon

c) combined effect of moon and sun

d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces
110. . The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is

a) 140

b) 200

c) 150

d) 100
111. Aswan Dam is located in-

a) Egypt

b) Libya

c) Sudan

d) Iran
112. Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of -

a) Rajasthan

b) Madhya Pradesh

c)Uttar Pradesh

d) Maharashtra
113. Dry ice is-

a) Frozen carbon monoxide

b) Frozen carbon dioxide

c) Frozen ammonia

d) None of these
114. East flower river of India is -

a) Cauvery

b) sone

c) Narmada

d) Tapti
115. The total length of the great wall of China is –

a) 1,400 miles

b) 1,500 miles

c) 1,300 miles

d) 1,400 miles
116. Deficiency of vitamin C may result in-

a) beriberi

b) night blindness

c) dermatitis

d) Scurvy
117. Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a period of –

a) 11 months

b) 2 years

c) 18 months

d) 15 months
118. Indian local time is based on-

a) 800 E longitude

b) E longitude

c) 1100 E longitude

d) 250 E longitude
119. The two days Shiv Shena Mahashivir of 2002 started at Shirdi on –

a) 9th April 2002

b) 10th April 2002

c) 8th April 2002

d) 11th April 2002

120.
Which one is a good preservative of food?

a) Spirit

b) Formaldehyde

c) Sugar

d) None of the above

BSNL GE JTO-Recruitment Examination

1. For an abrupt junction varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (c) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by –

a.) C a V1/3

b.) C a V-1/3

c.) C a V1/2

d.) C a V-1/2
2. The main purpose of plating the high frequency inductors and capacitors with silver is to

a.) Reduce their dc resistances

b.) Reduce their ac resistances

c. )Increase their ac resistance

d.) Increases their dc resistance
3.

In a semiconductor the measurement of Hall coefficient provides information on the –

a. )Sign and mass of charge carriers

b.) Mass and concentration of charge carriers

c.) Sign of charge carries alone

d. )Sign and concentration of charge carriers
4.

In electrical machines, laminated cores are used with a view to reduce –

a.) Hysteresis loss

b.) Eddy current loss

c. )Magnetic loss

d.) None
5.

In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at the surface of the –

a.) Sheath

b.) conductor

c.) Insulator

d.) None
6.

The series equivalent resistance value in case of a lossy capacitor will be –

a.) Very small

b.) Small

c.) Large

d.) None
7.

One of the following material which has negative temperature coefficient of resistance is-

a. )Brass

b. )Copper

c. )Aluminium

d.) Carbon
8.

The input impedance of a CRD is nearly –

a. )zero

b.) around 10 ohms

c. )around 100 ohms

d.) around one mega ohm
9.

9. In order to convert intrinsic semiconductors into extrinsic ones, the level of doping required is about –

a.) 1 : 103

b.) 1 : 1

c.) 1 : 108

d. )1 : 105
10.

One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –

a. )Thermocouple

b.) Piezoelectric pick up

c. )Photo-Voltaic cell

d. )LCD
11.

The threshold voltage of a MOSFET can be lowered by –

a. )Using a thinner gate oxide

b. )Increasing the substrate concentration

c. )Both a & b

d.) None
12.

The resistance of a metallic wire would –

a.) Increase as the operating frequency increases.

b.) Decrease as the operating frequency increases

c.) Remain unaffected on increasing the operating frequency

d.) None
13.

One of the following statements which is correct regarding the two transistor model of the p-n-p-n four layer device is –

a. )It explains only the turn ON portion of the device characteristic.

b. )It explains only the turn OFF portion of the device characteristics.

c.) It explains only the negative region portion of the device characteristics.

d. )It explains all the regions of the device characteristics.
14.

The gain-band width product of a junction transistor is affected to a maximum extent by –

a.) Base collector parasitic capacitance

b.) Base collector space charge layer capacitance

c.) Base collector space charge layer capacitance

d. )Base emitter diffusion capacitance
15.

The modulation of effective base width by collector voltage is known as early effect, hence reverse collector voltage –

a.) Increases both alpha and beta

b.) Decreases both alpha and beta

c.) Increases alpha but decreases beta

d.) Decreases beta but increase alpha.
16. One of the following theorem which is the manifestation of the law of conservation of energy is –

a. )Tellegen's theorem

b.) Reciprocity theorem

c. )Thevenin's theorem

d. )Norton's theorem
17. The network shown in the fig. represents a :

a.) band-pass filter

b) low-pass filter

c.) high-pass filter

d.) band-stop filter
18. For the circuit shown in the fig. the current I is –

a.) indeterminable due to inadequate data

b) zero

c.) 4A

d.) 8A
19. 1When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively –

a.) 9W, 6W and 6W

b) 6W, 6W and 9W

c.) 9W, 6W and 9W

d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
20. When two identical 3v, 1W batteries are connected in parallel with like polarity to like then the Norton equivalent circuit of this combination is –

a) 3A, 0.5W

b.) 6A, 1W

c.) 3A, 1W

d.) 6A, 0.5W
21.

The dominate mode in a waveguide is characterized by-

a.)Longest cut off wavelength

b.) Shortest cut off wavelength

c.) Infinite attenuation

d.) Zero attenuation
22.

22. The antenna most commonly used for TV broadcasting in the UHF band is

a.) Turnstile antenna

b.) Dipole antenna

c. ) Yagi antenna

d.)Rhombic antenna
23.

The crossed dipoles in turnstile antenna are excited with voltage such that the phase shift between the voltage is-

a.) Zero

b.) 450

c.) 900

d.) 1800
24.

The channel required for FM telemetry is-

a.) The same as that required for AM telemetry

b.) Smaller than the required for AM telemetry

c. ) 100 Times that required for AM telemetry

d. )10 times that required for AM telemetry
25.

When the input impedance of loss-less transmission line is 100 ohms when terminated in a short circuit and 64 ohms when terminated in an open circuit, then the input impedance of the line is

a. ) 80 W

b. )164 W

c.) 36 W
26.

Evanescent mode attenuation in a waveguide depends upon the-

a.) 32 GHz

b.) 8 GHz

27.

Out of the following the one that mostly reflects the high frequency radio waves is-

a.) D

b). E

c.) F1

d.) F2
28.

One of the following which is not a wide band antenna is-

a.) Marconi

b.) Helical

c.) Rhombic

d. )Folded dipole
29.

The power carried by an electromagnetic wave traveling in free space changes with distance ‘d’ in proportion to-

a.) d

b.) 1/d

c.) 1/d2

d.) d2
30.

In a FM receiver, the channel bandwidth is around-

a.) 10 KHz

b.) 20 KHz

c.) 75 KHz

d.) 200 KHz
31.

When the power of transmitter is doubled, then the field strength at a point will go up by-

a.) 2 dB

b.) 6 dB

c.) 3 dB

d.) None
32.

In any transmitting antenna system, efficiency primarily depends upon-

a.) Ohmic losses of various conductors

b.) Radiation resistance

c.) Ground conductivity

d.) Atmospheric conditions
33.


The signal to quantisation noise ratio in a PCM system depends upon –

a.) sampling rate

b.) number of quantisation levels

c.) massage signal band width

d.) size of the transmission system.
34. Q. is –

a.) directly proportional to damping factor.

b.) inversely proportional to damping factor.

c.) directly proportional to the square of damping factor.

d.) directly proportional to the cube of damping factor.
35.


A dry cell is a –

a.) time variant only

b.) active device only

c.) time-varying and active device

d. )none.
36. A digital frequency counter can be converted to a DVM by addition of a stage of suitable –

a.) voltage controlled oscillator

b.) D/A converter to it

c.)power amplifier to it

d. )operational amplifier to it.
37.


A 0 to 200 V dc moving coil voltmeter has a guaranteed accuracy of 0.75 % of full scale reading. The voltage measured by instrument is 100V. The limiting error is –

a. )3%

b.) 2%

c. )1.5%

d. )0.75%
38. . The dynamic characteristics of capacitive transducers are similar to those of a –

a. )low pass filter

b.) high pass filter

c. )notch filter

d. )band stop filter
39. The temperature coefficient of resistance for a thermistor is –

a.) low and negative

b.) low and positive

c.) high and negative

d. )high and positive
40. Which of the following types of transducers can be used for measurement of an angular position is –

a. )Circular potentiometer

b.) Synchro

c.) E-pick off

d.) both a and b
41.

A 300V full-scale deflection voltmeter has an accuracy of ± 2 %. When it reads 222V. The actual voltage –

a.) Lies between 217.56V and 226.44V

b.) Lies between 217.4V and 226.6V

c. )Lies between 216V and 228V

d. )Is exactly 222V
42.

In a thyristor, ratio of latching current to holding current is-

a.) 0.4

b.) 1.0

c.) 2.5

d.)6.0
43.

In a single-phase full converter bridge the average output voltage is given by-

a. b.

c. d.
44. A 3 phase semi converter can work as-

a.) converter for a = 00 to 1800

b.) converter for a = 00 to 900

c.) inverter for a = 900 to 1800

d.) inverter for a = 00 to 900
45. In the given arrangement A-3 the circuit is initially in steady stale with thyristor T off. At the moment thyristor T is turned on the thyristor current is –

a.) 2 A

b.) 22 A

c.) 40A

d.) 42 A
46. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the out put voltage can be controlled by FM by varying-

a) T keeping Ton constant

b.) T off keeping T constant

c.) T keeping T off constant

d.) none of the above
47.

In synchronized UJT friggering of an SCR, voltage Vo across capacitor reaches UJT threshhold voltage thrice in each half cycle so that there are three firing pulses during each half cycle. The firing angle of the SCR can be controlled.

a.) once in each half cycle.

b.) thrice in each half cycle

c.) twice in each half cycle.

d. )four times in each half cycle.
48.

When a series LC circuit is connected to a dc supply of V volt through a thyristor, then the peak current through thyristor is-

49.

In a single phase voltage controller with RL load, ac output power can be controlled if

a). firing angle a > and (load phase angle) and conduction angle

b. )

c. )

d. )
50.

Class C amplifier is mainly used as-

a. ) As an RF amplifier

b.) As stereo amplifier

c.) In communication sound equipment

d.) As distortion generator
51.

Parasitic oscillations in amplifiers are caused by-

a. ) Negative feedback

b.) Push-pull operation

c.) Poor interstage coupling

d.) Transistor inter – junction capacitance
52.

The input impedance in a voltage shunt feedback is-

a.) decreased

b.) Increased

c.) Remains unchanged

d. )None of the above
53.

The signal/noise (S/N) ratio of an amplifier developing an output voltage of 10 v and a noise voltage of 1 mV is ------ dB

a.)40

b.)100

c.)-40

d.)80
54.

The feedback factor ‘BAv’ is negative for negative feedback-

a.) True

b). False

c). May or May not be

d). None of the above
55.

For sustaining oscillations in a feedback amplifier the loop gain should be-

a. ) Zero

b.) Less than one

c.) Greater than one

d.) None of the above
56.

An operational amplifier has a slew rate of 100 v/ microsecond. For a frequency of 10MHz the maximum value of the sine-wave output voltage will be-

a.)100 v

b.)50/p v

c).10v

d).5v
57.

A signal having uniformly distributed amplitude in the interval (-v,+v) is to be encoded using PCM with uniform quantization. The signal to quantizing noise ratio is determined by the-

a. ) Dynamic range of the signal

b.) Number of quantizing level

c.) Sampling rate

d). Power spectrum of signal
58.

For signal amplitude modulated to a depth of 100 % by a sinusoidal signal power is-

a. ) Same as the power of unmodulated carrier

b.) Twice as the power of unmodulated carrier

c. ) 3/2 times the power of unmodulated carrier

d.) 2/3 times the power of unmodulated carrier
59.

Identify the false statement about MOSFET.

It can deplete in-

a.) Depletion mode

b). Enhancement modes

c.) Depletion and enhancement modes

d. )Depletion only mode
60. The process of conversion from an analog signal to digital signal is known as an –

a.) analog to digital conversion

b.) digital to analog conversion

c.) analog to analog conversion

d.) digital to digital conversion
61. TTL circuits are used in main frame computers because of their –

a.) fast operating speed

b.) slow operating speed

c.) medium operating speed

d.) none of the above
62. When a large number of analog signals is to be converted to digital form, an analog multiplexor is used. The A to D converter suitable in this case will be –

a.) dual slope type

b.) up down counter type

c.) successive approximation type

d.) forward counter type
63. Identity wrong rule for binary subtraction ?

a.) 0 – 0 = 0

b.) 1 – 0 = 1

c.) 1 – 1 = 0

d. )0 – 1 = -1 with borrow of 1
64. The binary equivalent of 9.37510 is –

a.) 1001.0112

b.) 1101.1012

c.) 1100.0112

d.) 1111.0012
65. In FM if transmission bandwidth is doubled then the SNR is-

a.) Also doubled

b) Improved fourfold

c.) Decreased by one fourth

d.) Unaffected
66. Main memory are of two kinds –

a.) ROM and RAM

b.) random and sequential

c.) primary and secondary

d.) central and peripheral
67. The resolution for n bit system D/A converter is –

68. In a PCM system, the number of quantization level are 16 and the maximum signal frequency is 4KHz. The bit transmission rate is-

a.) 64 K bits / sec

b.) 32 bits / sec

c.) 32 K bits /sec

d) 16K bits /sec
69. Mark out sop in the following-

70. The reverse saturation Current ICO in a transistor amplifier-

a. )doubles for every 100C rise in temperature

b.) doubles for every 50C rise in temperature

c.) doubles for every 10C rise in temperature

d.) increases linearly with temperature
71. The given circuit is equivalent to –

a.) b.)

c.) d.)


72. The interface chip used for data transmission between 8086 and a 16-bit ADC is –

a.) 8529

b.) 8251

c.) 8255

d.) 8253
73. The output signal amplitudes for1's and 0's in an ADM transmission system –

a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed

b. )Fixed but the repetition rate is variable

c.)Variable and the repetition rate is also variable

d.) variable but the repetition rate is fixed
74. A composite voltage V = 10 sin 100t + 10cos 100t is applied across a series combination of a capacitor of 1/mF and a resistance of 10 kW. The average power dissipated in the resistance is –

a.) 5mW

b.) 3.5mW

c. )4mW

d.) 8mW
75. Considering a negative feedback system

The closed loop system is stable for

76. Mark the features of the break away point in the root locus of a closed loop control system with the characteristic equation 1+ KG1 (s) H1 (s) = 0

1. It need not always occur only on the real axis.

2. At this point G1(s) H1(s) = 0

3. At this point

Select the correct answer using codes below.

a.)1, 2 and 3

b.) 1 and 2

c.) 2 and 3

d.) 1 and 3
77. Which of the following components can be used as a rotating amplifier in a control system?

1. An amplidyne

2. A separatively excited dc generator

3. A self excited dc generator

4. A sychro

select the correct answer using codes below-

a. )3 and 4

b.) 1 and 2

c). 1, 2 and 3

d.) 1, 2, 3 and 4
78. In the formation of Routh’s array the situation of a row of zeros indicates that the system-

a.) has symmetrically located roots.

b. )is not sensitive to variations in gain

c.) is stable

d.) unstable
79. A 3-port circulator is shown in the figure.

Which one of the following scattering matrices related to this circulator?








80. In the given figure a signal flow graph is shown. Consider the statements regarding the signal flow graph-

1. There are three forward paths

2. There are three individual loops

3. There are two non touching loops

of these statements-

a.) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b.) 1 and 2 are correct

c.)2 and 3 are correct

d.) 1 and 3 are correct
81. Mark out wrong statement.

Modulation is used to-

a. )Reduce the bandwidth used

b). Separate differing transmissions

c.) Ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distances

d.) Allow the use of practicable antennas
82. The best scanning system for tracking if the target has been acquired is-

a.) lobe switching

b.) sequential lobbing

c.) conical scanning

d.) monopulse
83. The amplification in parametric amplifiers used in microwave communication system is limited by-

a.) type of biasing

b.) cassegranian antenna

c.) pyramidal horn antenna

d. )dipole antenna
84. Gating signal is applied to the circuit as shown in the given figure, to switch the field effect transistor. When gating signal isOV, the output voltage VO will be-

a. )Zero

b.) Sine wave (2Vp-p)

c.) 2Vdc

d.) I/2V
85. Hamming codes are used for error detection and correction. If the minimum Hamming distance is m, then the number of errors correctable is-

a. )equal to M

b.) less than M/2

c.) equal to 2 M

d.) greater than M
86. Mark out a wrong statement for two phase servo motor-

a. )The rotor diameter is small

b.) The rotor resistance is low

c. )The applied voltages are seldom balanced

d.) The torque speed characteristic is linear.
87. The frequency deviation in phase modulation is-

a.) independent of the modulating signal frequency

b.) inversely proportional to the modulating signal frequency

c.) directly proportional to the modulating signal frequency.

d.) inversely proportional to the square root of the modulating frequency.
88. A telephone channel has bandwidth B of and . It is connected to a Teletype machine having 32 different symbols. The symbols rate required for errorless transmission is nearly-

a. )1800 symbol/s

b.) 3000 symbols/s

c.) 5000 symbols/s

d.) 6000 symbols/s
89. Which power amplifiers has maximum efficiency?

a.) Class A

b). Class AB

c.) Class B

d.) Class C
90.

Negative resistance characteristics for its operation is used by –

a.) TWT

b). Klystron

c.) Magnetron

d. )MASERS
91.

Is a non mark able interrupt-

a. )RST 7.5

b). RST 6.5

c.) RST 5.5

d.) TRAP
92. Instructions in C are of type-

a. )2

b. )3

c.) 4

d.) 6
93. In C programming character variable can at a time store-

a.) 1 character

b.) 8 characters

c.) 16 characters

d.) 256 characters
94. To obtain 16 x 8 memory using 16x4 memory. How many IC required-

a.) 16

b.) 2

c.) 4

d.) 8
95. In active low logic, the logic I state corresponds to-

a.) high voltage level

b) low voltage level.

c.) negative voltage

d.) ground level.
96. If JK inputs are tied together, the circuit reduces to-

a.) SR FF

b.) D FF

c) T FF

d.) JK FF
97. For designing half adder are require-

a.) a NOT gate and a OR gate

b). a AND gate and a OR gate

c). two AND gate

d.) a AND gate and a X – OR gate
98. Portly random and portly cyclic sequential access of memory is in-

a.) magnetic tape

b.) CD ROM

c.) Magnetic Drum

d.) Flopy
99. A pointer which points the memory address of the current or next instruction is-

a.) Index register

b.) Temp register

c.) Program counter

d.) Stack pointer
100. For address modification purpose computer uses-

a. )Temp register

b.) Index register

c.) Stack pointer

d.) Program counter
101. Let's go for a walk, . The tag question required for this statement is :

a.) Shall we ?

b.) Should we ?

c.) don't we?

d.) do we ?
102. He looked very grave

Which of the following words has the closest meaning to the word underlined.

a.) angry

b) serious.

c.) frightened

d.) upset.
103. Sharma did not work ----- so his master asked him to leave-

a.) proper

b.) properly

c.) rightly

d) straight
104. Being punctual is necessary in your job. (Substitute the underlined word without changing its meaning) -

a.) attractive

b.) free from worries

c). on time

d.) cheerful
105. Reema said that she had never ----- a book she liked so much.

a.) held upon

b.) saw into

c.) come across

d.) viewed on
106. The first bullet train is assembled in –

a. )South Korea

b.) North Korea

c.) Japan

d.) Malaysia
107. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs and Communications and Information Technology of Government of India is –

a.) Uma Bharati

b.) Pramod Mahajan

c. )Murli Manohar Joshi

d.) Uma Kashyap
108. Chairman of the Cricket Board’s Zonal Academics is –

a.) N Venkat Rao

b.) Jag Mohan Dalmia

c.) Chandru Borde

d.) Kapil Dev
109. Romario matched the career total of retired Zico by-

a.) 830 goals

b.) 835 goals

c.) 834 goals

d.) 831 goals
110. The best source of Vitamin A is

a.) Lime bean

b.) Carrot

c.)Tomato

d. )Orange
111. Titan is the name of the moon related to planet-

a. )Uranus

b.) Neptune

c. )Saturn

d. )There is no such moon
112. Word Environment Day was observed on-

a.) 5 May 99

b.) 15 May 99

c.) 5 June 99

d. )5 July 99
113. Who wrote ‘Mudrarakshasa”?

a. )Kautilya

b.) Visakhadatta

c.) Kalhana

d.) Kalidas
114. Where were the first Asian Games held?

a.) New Delhi

b). Teheran

c.) Tokyo

d.) Bangkok
115. Tagore's Gitanjali is-

a. )A collection of poems

b. )A collection of short stories

c. )A collection of dramas

d.) A novel
116. In which year did Mahatma Gandhi launched it first non cooperation movement-

a. )1917

b.) 1918

c.) 1919

d.) 1920
117. In how many years is Khumbh Mela held?

a. )3

b). 5

c.) 8

d.) 10

e.) 12
118. Panchayat polls held in Jammu and Kashmir after the gap of-

a.) 40 years

b.) 20 years

c.) 33 years

d.) 23 years
119. The hardest part in a tooth is-

a.) Dental tubule

b.) Dentine

c.) Enamel

d.) Pulp
120. What is 'Pimpri' famous for?

a. )Chemicals factory
.) Fertilizer factory

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

1. Reactive current through the capacitive load produces -

a) Magnetic field

b) Electric field

c) Supermagnetic field

d) None


2. One of the following which gives piero-electric effect is -

a) Mu metal

b) PVDF

c) Sapphire

d) Ferrites


3. PZT piezo- electric materials have -

a) Higher curie temperature

b) Lower curie temperature

c) Absolute temperature

d) None


4. The residual resistivity of a binary alloy at OK is -

a) The sum of the residual resistivities of the component metals

b) The difference of the residual resistivities of the component metals.

c) The product of the residual resistivities of the component metals

d) Dependent on the concentration of the minor component in the alloy


5.

In active filter circuits, inductances are avoided mainly because they -

a) Are always associated with some resistance

b) Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturisation

c) Are non-linear in nature

d) Saturate quickly

6.

The depletion layer across a p-n junction lies -

a) mostly in the p-region

b) mostly in the n-region

c) equally to both p and n region

d) entirely in the p-region


7.

The voltage induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong and steady magnetic field is -

a) pulsating dc

b) dc

c) rectified ac

d) ac

8.

One of the following types of capacitor which is polarized is -

a) Electrolytic

b) Ceramic

c) Paper

d) Mylar

9.

Electric shock is-

a) Always fatal

b) Never fatal

c) Sometimes fatal

d) Always disfiguring


10.

A typical value of filter capacitor for 50 Hz ripple is -

a) 16mF

b) 10F

c) 10mF

d) None

11.

A telephone relay armature is made of material with -

a) High electrical conductivity

b) Low electrical conductivity

c) Negligible conductivity

d) None


12.

Larger the value of filter capacitor -

a) Larger is the peak-peak value of ripple voltage

b) Larger is the peak current in the rectifying diode

c) Longer is the time that current pulse flows through the diode

d) Smaller is the dc voltage across the load


13.

Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by -

a) Thermally generated electrons and holes

b) Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction

c) Migration of minority carriers across the junction

d) Flow of drift current


14.

The polarity of VGS for E-only MOSFET is -

a) positive

b) negative

c) zero

d) depends on P or N channel

15.

The following which will serve as a donor impurity in silicon -

a) Boron

b) Indium

c) Germanium

d) Antimony

16.

When bias applied to a vari-cap diode is increased, its capacitance -

a) is decreased

b) is increased

c) remains constant

d) first increases and then decreases.


17.

In case of a bipolar transistor a is -

a) positive and greater than 1

b) positive and less than 1

c) negative and greater than 1

d) negative and less than 1

18.

A BJT is -

a) not very sensitive to radiations

b) very sensitive to radiations.

c) independent of radiations

d) none

19. An SCR may be considered to be -

a) 2 diodes

b) 3 diodes

c) 4 diodes

d) 5 diodes

20. For a BJT, under the saturation condition -

a) IC = bIB

b) IC > bIB

c) IC is independent of all other parameters

d) IC < bIB

21.

In modern MOSFET’s the material used for the gate is -

a) High purity silicon

b) High purity silica

c) Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon

d) Epitaxial grown silicon

22. Find the Norton's equivalent of the circuit given below -







23. When the source in the circuit shown is a sinusoidal source then the input voltage is -


a) 10V

b) 5V

c) 27V

d) 24V

24. The time constant of the network shown in the given figure is given by -







25. The voltage transfer ratio of two-port networks connected in cascade may be conveniently obtained from the -




a) product of the individual ABCD matrices of the two networks

b) product of voltage transfer ratios of the two individual networks

c) sum of the Z- matrices of the two networks

d) sum of the h – matrices of the two networks

26. When a network has response with time as shown in fig. then which one of the following diagrams represents the location of the poles of this network ?






27. For the network shown in the given fig. the ratio is -







28. An attenuator drops a 10V signal to 50mv in an experiment. The loss in decibels is -

a) –40dB

b) –6dB

c) –55dB

d) –60dB

29. When the network has 10 nodes and 17 branches then the number of different node pair voltages would be -

a) 7

b) 9

c) 10

d) 45

30. The circuit shown in the following fig. will act as an ideal current source with respect to terminals A and B when frequency is -

a) zero

b) 1rad/s

c) 4rad/s

d) 16rad/s

31. When a short vertical grounded antenna is required to radiate at 1MHz and the effective height of the antenna is 30 m then the calculated value of the radiation resistance is -

a) 1.58 W

b) 158 W

c) 15.8 W

d) None of these


32. Shannon’s law relates -

a) antenna gain to bandwidth

b) frequency to antenna gain

c) antenna gain to transmission losses

d) information carrying capacity to S/N ratio


33. One of the following modes which has the characteristic of attenceation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is -

a) TE1 mode

b) TM01 mode

c) TE01 mode

d) Higher order mode

34. For a transmission line, the propogation constant, for a TEM wave travelling in it is given by (Where the symbols have the usual meanings ) -

a) [ (R+jwL) (G+jwc)]

b) [ R+jwL) (G+jwc)] ½

c) [ (R-jwL) (G + jwc) ] ½

d) [(R-jwL) ( G+jw2c)]1/3

35. The advantages of wave guides over co-axial lines would include which of the following features-

1. Easier to use 2. lower power losses

3. Higher operating frequencies possible

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 1,2 and 3

36. When a 75 ohm transmission line is to be terminated in two resistive loads R1 and R2 such that the standing pattern in the two cases have the same SWR , then the values of R1 and R2 (in ohms) should be -

a) 250 and 200 respectively

b) 225 and 25 respectively

c) 100 and 150 respectively

d) 50 and 125 respectively


37. The degenerate modes in a wave guide are characterized by -

a) Same cut off frequencies but different field distribution

b) Same cut off frequencies and same field distributions

c) Different cut off frequencies but same field distributions

d) Different cut off frequencies and different field distributions


38. A TEM wave impinges obliquely on a dielectric-dielectric boundary with Er1=2 and Er2=1, the angle of incidence for total reflection is -

a) 30 0

b) 60 0

c) 45 0

d) 90 0

39. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to the dipole is a -

a) Null

b) Circle

c) Figure of eight

d) None of the above


40. 40. Permeance is the -

a) square of reluctance

b) reluctance

c) reciprocal of the reluctance

d) cube of the reluctance.

41. One of the following which is an active transducer is -

a) Photoelectric

b) Photovoltaic

c) Photo-conductive

d) Photo emission

42. The wein bridge uses only -

a) Inductors

b) Capacitors

c) Resistors

d) Capacitors and Resistors.

43. The greater the value of Q -

a) higher will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.

b) smaller will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.

c) nothing can be said)

d) none.

44. The most serious source of error in a) c) bridge measurement is -

a) eddy currents

b) leakage currents

c) residual imperfectness

d) stray fields.

45. Moving iron instruments -

a) have a linear scale

b) do not have a linear scale

c) both a and b)

d) none.

46. If accuracy is the main consideration, which one of the following voltmeters should one select -

a) 100 v ; 2 mA

b) 100 v ; 100 ohm/volt

c) 100 v ; 1mA

d) 10,000 v ; 10 mA

47. In dc tacho generators used for measurement of speed of a shaft, frequent calibration has to be done because -

a) the contacts wear off

b) the strength of permanent magnet decreases with age

c) the armature current produces heating effect

d) there is back emf.

48. Ideal transformer cannot be described by -

a) h parameters

b) ABCD parameters

c) G parameters

d) parameters

49.

Consider the following statements -

A3- phase balanced supply system is connected to a 3 phase unbalanced load) Power supplied to this load can be measured using

1. Two wattmeters

2. One wattmeter

3. Three wattmeters

Which of these statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 3 alone


50.

The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to -

a) Produce a constant voltage

b) Provide temperature compensation

c) Provide a constant current

d) Measure average pH value


51.

Match the column A (Devices) with column B (Characteristics) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the column -

Column A Column B

A) BJT 1. Voltage controlled negative resistance

B) MOSFET 2. High current gain

C) Tunnel diode 3. Voltage regulation

D) Zener diode 4. High input impedance

Codes :

A B C D

a) 1 4 2 3

b) 2 4 1 3

c) 2 3 1 4

d) 1 3 2 4

52.

A thyristor during forward blocking state is associated with.-

a) large current , low voltage.

b) low current , large voltage.

c) medium current , large voltage

d) low current, medium voltage.

53.

In controlled rectifiers, the nature of load current i.e. whether load current is continuous or discontinuous -

a) does not depend on type of load and firing angle delay

b) depends both on the type of load and firing angle delay

c) depends only on the type of load)

d) depends only on the firing angle delay.

54. A single phase voltage controller feeds power to a resistance of 10 W . The source voltage is 200 V rms. For a firing angle of 900 , the rms value of thyristor current in amperes is -

a) 20

b) 15

c) 10

d) 5


55. In the performance of single phase and three phase full converters the effect of source inductance is to

a) reduce the ripples in the load current -

b) make discontinuous current as continuous

c) reduce the output voltage

d) increase the load voltage.


56. The cycloconverters (CCs) require natural or forced commutation as under -

a) natural commutation in both step up and step down CCs

b) forced commutation in both step up and step down CCs

c) forced commutation in step up CCs

d) forced commutation in step down CCs


57. Power transistors are more commonly of -

a) silicon npn type.

b) silicon pnp type.

c) silicon nnp type.

d) silicon npp type.


58.

C is a -

a) Middle level language

b) High level language

c) Low level language

d) None of above


59. What will be output of program

main ( )

{ int i ;

print f ("Enter value of i");

scant ("%d", & i);

if ( i = 5 )

print f ("you entered 5");

else

print f ("you entered %d", i ); }

if user entered 100 then

a) 5

b) 100

c) 1005

d) None

60. (7F)16 + (BA)16 = (?)16-

a) 481

b) 139

c) –481

d) –139

61. Two’s complement of 3 bit nonzero linory number is some or original number is all bits accepts-

a) MSB are zeros

b) LSB are zeros

c) MSB are ones

d) LSB are ones.

62. The schematic circuits of RTL NOR gate is-

















63. Transistors with high frequency have -

a) Thick base

b) Thin base

c) Some other feature

d) None of the above


64. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of -

a) Average waiting time

b) Grade of service

c) Peak waiting time

d) Erlangs


65. In a Hartley oscillator -

a) Necessary phase relation is obtained by connecting grid and plate electrodes to the opposite ends of the tuned circuit.

b) The mutual inductance must have the appropriate polarity.

c) Both grid circuit and plate tuned circuit offer inductive reactance

d) None of the above


66. The condenser C is charged in a bootstrap sweep generator -

a) Linearly but the discharge is non linear

b) Non linearly but the discharge is linear

c) Linearly and the discharge is linear

d) Non linearly and the discharge is non linear

67. In an audio amplifier audio signals become garbled and hence difficult to understand when an ac input current is large enough to drive the output to -

a) saturation only

b) Cut off only

c) Either saturation or cut off

d) A value off the load line


68. Five 1 bit registers are referred as -

a) Flags

b) Slags

c) Tags

d) None of the above

69. Next binary number after 0,1, 10, 11 is -

a) 12

b) 101

c) 100

d) 110

70. Identify coincidence logic circuit in the following –

a) b)

c) d)

71. The output analog voltage Vo is given by -







72. If an inverter is placed at the input to an SR flip flop, the result is -

a) T flip flop

b) D flip flop

c) JK flip flop

d) BCD decade counter

73. See the Root locus diagram of a system and the following statements :-


1. The open loop system is a second order system.

2. The system is over damped for

3. The system is absolutely stable for all value of R.

Which of these statements are correct?

a) 1, 2, & 3

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 2

74. For the transfer function G(S)H(S) = the phase cross over frequency is -

a) 0.5 rad/sec

b) 0.707 rad/sec

c) 1.732 rad/sec

d) 2 rad/sec

75. If the open loop transfer function of the system is G(S) H(S) =

then a closed loop pole will be located at S = -12 wher the value of K is -

a) 4355

b) 5760

c) 9600

d) 9862

76. Considering the following open loop transfer function -

The correct sequence of these systems in increasing order of the time taken for the unit step response to settle is –

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 3, 1, 2

c) 2, 3, 1

d) 3, 2, 1.

77. Considering unit feed back control system in the given figure, the ratio of time constant of closed loop response to open loop response will be -



a) 1: 1

b) 2 :1

c) 3 : 2

d) 2 : 3


78.

Angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is -

a) 17.340

b) 51.40

c) 1200

d) 600

79. For data transmission phase modulation is commonly used because -

a) Phase can be varied from +1800 to -1800

b) It is resistant to the effects of noise.

c) Demodulation is very easy

d) It gives highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel.


80. Several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known as –

a) Frequency division multiplex

b) Time division multiplex

c) A group

d) A super group

81. Identify the wrong statement-

The radar cross section of a target -

a) Depends on the frequency used

b) May be reduced by special coating of the target

c) Depends on the aspect of a target, if this is non spherical

d) Is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets.


82. Considering following parameters -

1. Loss in the media) 2. Permeability of the media) 3. Frequency of the wave 4. Velocity of the wave. Which of these parameters are responsible for the change of phase of a propagating electromagnetic wave?

a) 1, 2, and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1 and 4

83. In super heterodyne receivers double spotting is caused by -

a) poor front-end rejection

b) misalignment of receiver

c) detuning of one or more IF stages.

d) non functioning of AGC

84. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is -

a) 262 1/2

b) 525

c) 30

d) 60

85. In a TV receiver the color killer -

a) cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome receivers.

b) ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers

c) prevents color overloading

d) makes sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting off reception during the back porch.

86. The nominal capacitance of a coaxial RF cable is of 40 pF/m and the characteristic impedance of 50W. The inductance of the cable is-

a) 1mH/m

b) 10 mH/m

c) 0.1 mH/m

d) 0.01 mH/m

87. Transmission of wave through Dominant mode is -

a) distortion less transmission

b) generates undesirable harmonic distortion

c) having loss of power

d) None of above.

88.

Lower the standing wave ratio (SWR) -

a) Greater mismatch error

b) Lower mismatch error

c) No effect on matching

d) Moderate mismatch error

89.

In klyrtron oscillator for getting wide range of oscillations resonators should be -

a) Critically coupled

b) Under coupled

c) Over coupled

d) No coupling required


90.

The critical frequency is always -

a) Lower than maximum usable frequency

b) Equal to maximum usable frequency

c) Higher than maximum usable frequency

d) None of above


91.

The PIN diode based on -

a) Nonlinear resistance

b) Nonlinear reactance

c) Negative resistance

d) Controllable impedence

92.

Which antenna having circular polarization -

a) Horn antenna

b) Lens antenna

c) Helical antenna

d) Discone antenna

93.

The i/p S/N ratio of system is 50 and the o/p S/N ratio is 5 the noise figure is -

a) 250

b) 55

c) 10

d) 45

94.

In the 8085 mP, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location -

a) 30 H

b) 24 H

c) 48 H

d) 60 H

95.

In instruction cycle first operation is -

a) Memory read

b) Address read

c) Opcode fetch

d) Data read

96.

CMP instruction comes under group -

a) Data transfer

b) Branching operations

c) Machine control operation

d) Logical operations.

97.

In which logic operation does not effect any flags -

a) ANA B

b) ORA B

c) XRI A2H

d) CMA

98.

What happen when CALL instruction executed -

a) Data retrieved from stock to register

b) Data from register saved on the stock.

c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock

d) 16 bit address from stock retrieved)


99.

The mark status of mark able interrupts is defined according to content of -

a) stack pointer.

b) HL register .

c) Program counter

d) Accumulator

100.

The decoder is a logic ckt that -

a) Amplifies the current or power at i/p.

b) Identifies each combination of the signals present at i/p

c) Provides appropriate code as o/p for each i/p signal

d) Both b & c)

101. The young man was quickly promoted when his employers how --------------- he was -

a) indigent

b) indifferent

c) assiduous

d) cursory.

102. As letter is alphabet so zodiac is -

a) almanac

b) beacon

c) sign

d) signal.

103. What is the correct meaning of prudish.?

a) careful

b) fast

c) God

d) brave

104. Pick out the odd matching with reference to number -

a) woman – women.

b) hair – hairs

c) child – children.

d) foot – feet.

105. Choose the phrase that is most nearly similiar in meaning to the word given below-

Abut is

a) Stimulate

b) Grasp

c) Oppose

d) Adjoin

106. The highest mountain peak in Indian Territory is -

a) Mount Everest

b) Kanchenjunga

c) Nanda Devi

d) Mount Kailash

107. German silver is an alloy comprising -

a) Copper, Nickel and Zinc

b) Silver, copper and Zinc

c) Silver Nickel and Zinc

d) Nickel, Zinc and Lead

108. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar’s mausoleum is in -

a) Delhi

b) Lahore

c) Yangon

d) Agra

109. On which date the World Trade Centre in New York and Pentagon in Washington d)C was attacked by terrorist -

a) 12 September 2001

b) 11 September 2001

c) 11 July 2001

d) 20 December 2001

110. India defeats South Africa in the finals of the inaugural champions challenge Hockey Tournament in Kualalumpur by -

a) 4-2

b) 2-0

c) 3-2

d) 2-1

111. Which planets in the solar system are known as ‘Inferior Planets’ -

a) Earth and Mars

b) Earth and Mercury

c) Mars and Mercury

d) Mercury and Venus.

112. The largest Stupa in Southern India is at -

a) Nellore

b) Amravati

c) Tanjore

d) Kozhikode

113. The new chairman and Managing Director of Industrial Finance Corporaton of India (IFCI) is -

a) Mr. Vishwanath Prasad Singh

b) Mr. Jitendra Patil

c) Mr. Ragh

d) Mr. Shubhash chand Jain

114. Which one is the latest among rock-cut temples?

a) Ajanta

b) Ellora

c) Elephanta

d) All originated in the same period)

115. Number of organisations government ban in Jammu and Kashmir and the North East under the new ordinance ‘POTO’ is -

a) 20

b) 21

c) 22

d) 23

116. In bed of which river does Badrinath shrine stand?

a) Ganga

b) Mandakini

c) Alakananda

d) Bhagirathi

117. The nerve endings for the sense of sight are located in the part of the eye called the -

a) Cornea

b) Sclera

c) Iris

d) Retina

118. Fundamental duties were introduced in the constitution by the -

a) 40th Amendment

b) 42nd Amendment

c) 43rd Amendment

d) 44th Amendment

119. The Khalsa Panth was founded by -

a) Guru Hargovind

b) Guru Nanak Dev

c) Guru Tegh Bahadur

d) Guru Govind singh

120. Number of countries involved in international fleet review hosted by India is -

a) 27

b) 28

c) 29

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

1.

Reactive current through the inductive load produces-

a) Magnetic field

b) Electric field

c) Super magnetic field

d) None
2.

When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -

a) each of them increases

b) each of them decreases

c) copper increases and germanium decreases

d) copper decreases and germanium increases
3.

A capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5 cm2 each separated by an air gap of 2mm. Displacement sensitivity in pF /cm due to gap change would be -

a) 11.1

b) 44.2

c) 52.3

d) 66.3
4.

The critical angle in degrees, for an electromagnetic wave passing from Quartz (m = m0, Î=4Îo) into air is-

a) 15

b)30

c)45

d)90
5.

When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –

a) s = 0; s = -6

b) s = -1; s = -3

c) s = 0; s = -1

d) s = -3; s = -4
6.

A capacitor used for power factor correction in single- phase circuit decreases –

a) the power factor

b) the line current

c) Both the line current and the power factor

d) the line current and increases power factor
7.

The unit of inductance is –

a) ohm

b) inductive reactance

c) inducta

d) Henry
8.

Which type of by-pass capacitor works best at high frequencies –

a) electrolytic

b) mica

c) ceramic

d) plexiglass
9.

The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is –

a) 600 W

b) 500 W

c) 75 W

d) none
10.

Telemetering is a method of –

a) counting pulses, sent over long distances

b) transmitting pictures from one place to another

c) transmitting information concerning a process over a distance

d) None
11.

In an unbiased P-N junction thickness of depletion layer is of the order of –

a) 0.005 mm

b) 0.5 mm

c) 5 mm

d) 10-10 m
12.

One of the semiconductor device, which behaves like two SCRs is–

a) UJT

b) triac

c) JFET

d) MOSFET
13.

The following, which is not an advantage of semiconductor strain gauges as compared to conventional strain gauges, is –

a) excellent hysterists characteristics

b) least sensitive to temperature changes

c) high fatigue life

d) smaller size
14.

The fundamental ripple frequency of a half wave 3F rectifier with a 3F supply of frequency 50 Hz is –

a) 150 Hz

b) 50 Hz

c) 100 Hz

d) 250 Hz.
15.

For an FR biased PNP transistor –

a) base is negative with respect to emitter

b) collector is positive with respect to emitter

c) collector is a little more positive than base

d) base is a little less positive with respect to emitter than collector
16.

With normal operation of a JFET one can get IDss –

a) the maximum drain current

b) the minimum drain current

c) normal drain current

d) none
17.

An SCR is a semiconductor device made up of –

a) Four N type layers

b) Two P types and three N type layers

c) Two P type and two N type layers

d) Three P type and one N type layers
18.

For a UJT, if R1 = resistance from emitter to base 1, R2 = resistance from emitter to the base 2 and RBB = R1 + R2 then the intrinsic stand off ratio (h) is –

a)

b)

c)

d)
19.

As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –

a) becomes zero

b) abruptly decreases

c) abruptly increases

d) remains constant
20.

20 When the energy gap of a semiconductor is 1.1eV then it would be –

a) opaque to the visible light

b) transparent to the visible light

c) transparent to the infrared radiation

d) opaque to the infrared radiation
21.


The equivalent capacitance across ab will be –

d.0
22.

In the following fig. the power dissipated is maximum when the value of Rx is –

a) 33.4 K

b) 17.6 K

c) 10 K

d) 5 K
23.

The transfer function of a low pass RC network is –




24.

The total capacitance across points 'a' and 'b' in the given figure is –

a) 1.66 mF

b) 2.66 mF

c) 3.5 mF

d) 4.5 mF
25.

The load resistance needed to extract maximum power from the following circuit is –

a) 2W

b) 9W

c) 6W

d) 18W
26.

Which one of the following conditions for z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –

a) z11 = z22

b) z12z21 = z11z22

c) z11z12 = z22z21

d) z12 = z21
27.

In the network shown, the switch is opened at t = 0. Prior to that, the network was in the steady state, Vs(t) at t = 0 is –

a) 0

b) 5V

c) 10V

d) 15V
28.

Which of the following statements are correct –

1. Tellegen's theorem is applicable to any lumped network

2. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to linear bilateral networks.

3. Thevenin's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.

4. Norton's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 4

d) 3 and 4
29.

Which one of the following transfer functions represents the critically damped system ?

30.

When the respective coil impedance of the circuit shown in the fig. is are Z1 = (5 + j8)W and Z2=(3+j8) then the input impedance of the circuit will be –

a) (8 + 16j)W

b) (2 + j0)W

c) (15 + 64j)W

d) (8 + 0j)W
31.

One of the following statement which is not correct -

a) In case of an antenna, the radiation resistance and loss resistance are not two different quantities.

b) The loss resistance includes loss by eddy currents, improper earth connections, insulation leakages etc) but not I2R losses

c) Radiation resistance varies directly as square root of the frequency

d) None of the above
32.

Ultraviolet radiation emitted when electron jumps from an outer stationary orbit to -.

a) first stationary orbit

b) second stationary orbit

c) third stationary orbit

d) fourth stationary orbit
33.

When the signal is propogated in a waveguide which has a full wave of electric intensity change between the two farther walls and no component of the electric field in the direction of propogation then the mode is –

a) TE11

b) TE10

c) TM22

d) TE20
34.

Consider the following statements pertaining to parabolic antenna -

1.It is commonly used above 1GHz

2. It get’s circularly polarized

3. It’s radiation pattern is highly directional

4. It’s radiation pattern is cardiod

of these statements-

a) 1,2 and 4 are correct

b) 1 and 3 are correct

c) 1,2 and 3 are correct

d) 2 and 4 are correct
35.

When a vertical dipole antenna is used in conjunction with a loop antenna for direction finding, then the field pattern obtained will be-








36.

When one end of a loss less transmission line of length 3/8 l and characteristic impedance R0 is short circuited and the other end is terminated in Ro then the impedance at l/8 away from the end terminated in R0 is-

a) Zero

b) R0

c) R0/2

d) Infinite
37.

For transmission of wave from a dielectric permittivity Î1 into dielectric medium of lower permittivity Î2 (Î1 > Î2) the critical angle of incidence Qc ( relative to the interface ) is given by -








38.

A transmission line has primary constants R, L, G and C and secondary constants Z0 and g (= a + jb) if the line is loss less then .





39.

The intrinsic impedance of a free space is-







40.

One of the following which is a low gain but omni directional antenna is-

a) discone

b) log-periodic

c) loop

d) helical
41.

Electronic voltmeters have –

a) high input impedance

b) low input impedance

c) zero input impedance

d) none
42.

Which of the following statement about impulse voltage is true ?

a) An impulse voltage is an unidirectional voltage.

b) In chopped impulse voltage, flashover does not occur.

c) Time taken to rise is exactly equal to the time taken to fall.

d) RMS value of impulse voltage is always less than 50% of average value.
43.

The precision of an instrument indicates its ability to reproduce a certain reading with a given –

a) drift

b) resolution

c) shift.

d) consistency
44.

In heterodyne digital conductor, the input signal is heterodyned to a –

a) higher frequency

b) lower frequency

c) both a and b)

d) none
45.

In a digital measuring device, if the input electrical signal is in the frequency range dc to fmax Hz, then it must be sampled at a rate of –

a) fmax times/sec

b) fmax times/ses

c) every 2fmax/sec

d) 2 fmax times/sec .
46.

Moving Iron intruments measures the rms value of –

a) a direct quantity

b) an alternating quantity

c) a virtual quantity.

d) none.
47.

One of the following intruments which is used almost exclusively to measure radio frequency current is-

a) Moving coil meter

b) Rectifier-type moving coil meter

c) Iron-vane meter

d) Thermocouple meter.
48.

A good ohmic contact on a p- type semiconductor chip is formed by introducing –

a) gold as an impurity below the contact

b) a high concentration of donors below the contrac