1. Of the following bridges the one which can be used for the measurement of dielectric loss of a capacitor is –
a.) Schering bridge
b..) Heaviside campbell equal ratio voltage
c) Owen bridge
d.) Anderson bridge
2. LBDT is uses as a –
a). Displacement transducer
b.) Pressure transducer
c.) Temperature
d.) Any of the above
3. Polarization is a measure of -
a.) Dielectric constant per unit volume.
b. )Voltage gradient to produce electrical breakdown
c.) Product of charge and distance
d.)Excess charge density
4. Compared to the inductive type of transducer, capacitive transducer is superior for the measurement of displacement because of -
a.)Absence of non-linearity
b.) High frequency response
c.) Small size
d.) High accuracy
5.
An incremental model of a solid state device is one which represents the –
a.) ac property of the device at the desired operating point
b. )dc property of the device at all operating points
c.) Complete ac and dc behaviour of the device at all operating points
d.)ac property of the device at all operating points.
6.
The ac resistance of a forward biased p-n junction diode operating at a bias voltage 'V' and carrying current ‘I’ is –
a. )Zero
b. )a constant value independent of Vand I
c.)
d. )
7.
A meter is shielded with a soft iron to –
a. )Prevent damage from rough use
b.) Keep moisture out of movement
c. )Protect meter movement from stray magnetic fields
d.) Achieve all of the above
8.
A capacitor that has been connected across a battery for comparatively long time becomes–
a. )Charged
b.) Discharged
c.) Short - circuited
d.) Defective
9.
The charge on the plates of a capacitor is given by the expression –
a.) Q = VI
b.) Q = IR
c.) Q = CV
d.) Q = IC
10.
Silicon steel used for electrical purposes has silicon percentage of –
a. )0.5
b.) 2.5
c.) 3.4
d). None
11.
The feature of VTM is its –
a. )Low input impedance
b. )Low power consumbtion
c. )The ability to measure wider ranges of voltage and resistances
d). None
12.
In an N-type semiconductor, the position of the fermi level –
a. )Is lower than the centre of the energy gap
b.) Is at the centre of the energy gap
c.)Is higher than the centre of the energy gap
d. )Can be anywhere depending upon the doping concentration
13.
A JFET can operate in –
a.) depletion and enhancement model
b. )depletion mode only
c. )enhancement mode only
d.) neither enhancement nor depletion mode
14.
Consider the following semiconductor diodes –
a. )Germanium diode
b.)Silicon diode
c.) Tunnel diode
d.) Schottky diode
15.
A diode with a PIV of 50V is likely to break down when rectifying 50v ac supply because –
a.) it is made of defective material
b.) it is incorrectly connected to the supply
c.) peak value of ac supply exceeds the PIV value
d. )ac supply is of extremely high frequency.
16.
The set of transistor characteristics that enables a to be determined directly from the slope is –
a.) CE transfer characteristics
b. )CE output characteristics
c.) CB transfer characteristics
d.) CB input characteristics
17.
For an N-channel JFET, the drain voltage has to be –
a.) positive with respect to the source
b.) negative with respect to the source
c.) uncharged with respect to the source
d.)none
18.
The SCR is often employed as a –
a. )Source-controlled switch
b. )Drain-controlled switch
c.) Gate-controlled switch
d) None
19. An oscilloscope has an input impedance consisting of 1MW and 20pF in parallel. A high impedance probe connected to the input of this oscilloscope has a 10MW series resistance, this 10MW resistance –
a.) Need not be shunted
b.) Should be shunted by a 2pF capacitor
c.) Should be shunted by a 20pF capacitor
d. )Should be shunted by a 200pF capacitor
20.
Compared to silicon, gallium arsenide (GaAs) has –
a. )Easier to grow crystals since the vapour pressure of arsenic is high
b. )Higher optolectronic conversion efficiency
c.) Both a and b
d). None
21. When the network shown in the fig draw a current I and if the ends ab are shorted, the current drawn would be –
a.) I
b.) I\ 4
c.) 4 I
d.) 2 I
22. When all the resistances in the circuit are of one ohm each, then the equivalent resistance across the points A and B will be –
a.)1W
b.) 0.5W
c.) 2W
d). 1.5W
23. Of the following periodic waveforms the one having only odd harmonics of sinusoidal waveform is-
a. )1 and 2
b.) 1 and 3
c. )1 and 4
d. )2 and 4
24. When in the network shown in the given fig, the switch K is dosed at t = 0 with the capacitor uncharged then the value for at t = 0+ will be –
a. )100 amp./sec.
b. )–100 amp./sec.
c. )1000 amp./sec.
d. )–1000 amp./sec.
25. For the circuit shown in the given figure, the voltage VAB is –
a. )6V
b.)10V
c. )25V
d. )40V
26. In the network shown in the given fig. current i = 0 when E = 4V, I = 2A and I = 1A when E = 8V, I = 2A. The Thevenin voltage and the resistance into the terminals AB are –
a. )4V, 2W
b.) 4V, 4W
c.) 8V, 2W
d.) 8V, 4W
27. The effective resistance between the terminals A and B in the circuit shown in the fig. is –
a.) R
b.) R-1
c.) R/2
d.) 6/11 R
28. When in a two terminal network, the open circuit voltage measured at the given terminals by an electronic voltmeter is 100V and a short circuit current measured at the same terminals by an ammeter of negligible resistance is 5A then if a resistor of 80W is connected at the same terminal, then the current in the load resistor will be –
a. )1A
b.) 1.25A
c). 6A
d.) 6.25A
29. If for the network shown in the following fig. the value of Z(s) is then the value of C and R are respectively –
30. In Faraday’s induction phenomenon, a changing magnetic field is accompanied by an electric field. Which of the following equation or equations represents it-
31. The electric potential due to an electric dipole of length L at point distance r away from it will be doubled if the -
a. ) Length L of the dipole is doubled
b. ) r is doubled
c. ) r is halved
d ) L is halved
32. When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide there appears an extra electric component in the direction of propogation . The resulting mode is
a. ) Longitudinal electric
b. ) Transverse electromagnetic
c. ) Transverse magnetic
d ). Transverse electric
33. When for a transmission line the open circuit and short circuit impedance are 20W and 5 W respectively then the characteristic impedance of the line is -
a. ) 100 Ohms
b ). 50 Ohms
c. ) 25 Ohms
d. ) 10 Ohms
34. In an ideal transmission line with matched load, the voltage standing wave ratio and reflection coefficient are respectively -
a. ) 1 and 1
b ). infinity and 1
c ) infinity and 0
d. ) 1 and 0
35. When an electric charge of 100 coulombs is enclosed in sphere of radius 100 m then the electric displacement density ( in coulomb / m2) D is –
a. ) 0.0833
b ). 0.833
c. ) 1.666
d. ) 10
36. For the dominant mode in a rectangular wavelength with breadth 10 cm, the guide wavelength for a signal of 2.5 GHz will be -
a. ) 12 cm
b. ) 15 cm
c. ) 18 cm
d. ) 20 cm
37. When the phase velocity of an electromagnetic waves depends on frequency in any medium, the phenomenon is called-
a. ) Scattering
b. )Polarization
c. ) Absorption
d. ) Dispersion
38.
Antennas commonly used for microwave links are -
a. ) Loop antenna
b. ) Log-periodic antennas
c. ) Paraboloidal dishes
39. 39. One of the following instrument which may be used to measure the optical activity of compounds is –
a. )Infrared spectrometer
b. ) Atomic absorption spectrometer
c. ) Polarimeter
d. ) Flouroscope
40. Schering bridge measures –
a. )Capacitance dielectric loss
b. ) Inductance
c. )Resistance
d. ) Mutual inductance
41. When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit, then –
a. ) voltage across R is square and across C is not square
b. ) voltage across C is not square and across R is not square
c. ) voltage across both R and C are square
d. ) voltage across both R and C are not square
42. The time constant of the RC circuit is –
a. ) less than the time period of the input square wave.
b ). much larger than the time period of the input square wave.
c. ) equal to the time period of the input square wave.
d ). none
43. Harmonic distortion for each frequency can be obtained by harmonic analyser of the –
a. )heterodyne type
b. ) tuned circuit type
c. ) fundamental suppression type`
d. ) bridge circuit type.
44. A three phase wattmeter requires –
a ). only two current coils and two pressure coils
b. )only one current coil and two pressure coil
c. ) only two current coils and one pressure coil
d. ) only current coil
45. A low pass filter circuit is basically –
a. ) a differentiating circuit with low time constant
b. ) a differentiating circuit with large time constant.
c. ) an integrating circuit with low time constant.
d. )an integrating circuit with large time constant.
46. If the differential pressure in restriction type flow measuring devices is then the flow will be proportional to –
47. When a system is represented by the transfer function then the dc gain of this system is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 5
d.) 10
48.
Silicon based semiconductor device called thyristor was first fabricated by –
a). Jell laboratories in U.S.A
b). Maxwell laboratories in U.S.A
c.) Bell laboratories in U.S.A
d). GEC laboratories in U.S.A
49.
A semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500mV/0C. This transducer is indeed a –
a.)Thermistor
b.) Forward biased pn junction diode
c. )Reverse biased pn junction diode
d.) FET
50.
Which of the followings pairs of Telemetry situations and Modulation techniques and conditions is correctly matched-
a. )Pulse amplitude modulation Low amplitude signals
b. )Pulse position modulation For short distance when power is enough
c.) Pulse width modulation Power to be spent in telemetry is required to be low
d.) Pulse code modulation. Minimisation of interference effects.
51.
The SCR ratings di/dt in A/m sec and dv/dt in n/m sec, may vary, respectively between-
a.) 20 to 500, 10 to 100
b. )both 20 to 500
c.) both 10 to 100
d.) 50 to 300, 20 to 500
52.
Match the given controlled rectifiers with 50 Hz supply
a. )1 phase full converter with source inductance
b. )3 phase full converter
c.)3 phase semiconductor
d. )3 phase halls wave converter
53. For natural or forced commutation the cyclo converters (CCs) requires as under.
a) natural commutation in both step up and step down CCs
b.) forced commutation in both step up and step down CCs
c.) forced commutation in step up CCs
d). forced commutation in step down CCs
54. The peak inverse voltage in ac to dc converter system is highest in-
a). single phase full wave mid point converter
b). single phase full converter
c) 3 phase bridge converter
d). 3 phase half wave converter.
55. A single phase full converter feeds power to RLE load with R = 6 W L = 6 MH and E = 60 V. The ac source voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz, For continuous conduction, the average value of load current for a firing angle delay of 50 is
a.)12.181 A
b). 14.81 A
c). 16.76 A
d.) 32.40 A
56. Which one of the following is the Fourier transform of the signal given in fig. B if the Fourier transform of the signal in fig A is given by -
57. What is 215 complement of 00011100-
a.) 11100011
b.) 10001100
c.) 11100100
d.) 10000111
58. In C programming a expression contains relational operators, assignment operators and arithmetic operators if parentheses is absent then execution follows
a.) assignment, relational, arithmatic
b.) arithmatic, relational, assignment
c.) relational, arithmatic, assignment
d.) assignment, arithmatic, relational
59. In semiconductor memory information stored in form-
a.) binary
b.) hexadecimal
c.) octal
d.) ASCII
60. i\p to Not gate gives o/p as-
a ) inversion of some bits
b.) 2’s complement of i\p
c.) 1’s complement of i\p
d.) o/p is some as i\p
61. A negative logic means-
a .)logic 0 and 1 are represented by a +ve voltage respective
b). logic 0 and 1 are presented as –ve and +ve voltage
c. )logic 0 voltage is higher than logic 1 voltage level
d.) logic 0 voltage is lower than logic 1 voltage level
62. For designing D flip flop from SR FF a circuit is aloud at 01p of SR FF is-
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NOR
d.) NOT
63. The transistor shown in fig is
a. ) Silicon, NPN with Ic = 0.5 mA
b.) Silicon PNP with Ic = 0.5 mA
c.) Germanium PNP with IE = 0.5 mA
d.) Germanium NPN with Ic=0.5 mA
64. A 20,000 Ohms per volt meter will deflect full-scale with a current of -
a.) 50 mA
b.) 50 mA
c.) 100 mA
d.) 1000 mA
65. A plate modulated class –CRF power amplifier produces 100 KW of radiated power at 100 % modulation. The modulating audio amplifier supplies approximately -------- kW of this power-
a.)50
b).33
c).22
d).11
66. An amplifier without feedback has a distortion of 15 % and gain of 40. When 10% negative feedback is applied the distortion will become-
a.) 50 %
b). -45 %
c). 3%
d). -5%
67. MODEM implies-
a.)Modulator at transmitting side and ditector at the receiving side
b.)Which deals with analog signals and shows digital information
c.)Analog to digital at transmitting side and digital to analog at a receiving side
d).A device which deals with digital signals only
68. Twisted ring and ring counters are examples of –
a. )Synchronous counters
b.) Asynchronous counters
c.) both a and b
d.) None of the above
69. Specify Non characteristic flip flop in the following –
a.) The outputs are complement of each other
b.) The flip flop has two input signals
c.) The flip flop has two output signals
d). The flip flop is a bistable devise with only two stable states
70. The voltage obtained when digital input is 001 is a 3 bit R-2R ladder DIA converter is-
a.) VR/22
b.) VR/21
c.) VR/23
d.) none of the above
71. Identify NOT an octal number-
a.) 19
b). 15
c.) 77
d.) 101
72. The set of binary digits 01000100 represent's-
a.) number 6810 in a pure binary computer
b.) number 44 in 8421 BCD code
c) Both a and b
d.) None of the above
73. The system matrix of a continuous time system, described in the state variable form is –
The system is stable for all values of x and y satisfying –
a.)x < 1/2, y < 1/2
b). x < 0, y < 2
c. )x > 1/2 , y >0
d.) x < 0 , y < 1/2
74. The break away and break in point in the root locus for open loop transfer function G(S) H(S) = are located respectively at –
a). –2 and -1
b). –2.47 and –3.77
c.) –4.27 and –7.73
d.) –7.73 and –4.27
75. The transfer function for the given system shown in figure is –
76. The type and order of the system whose Nyquist plot is shown in fig is-
a.)0.1
b.) 1,2
c.) 0,2
d). 2,1
77. The overall transfer function in a second order is given by-
Its resonant frequency is -
a.) 2
b.)
c).
d.) 3
78. The detection of an AM waveform in an Envelope –
a.)One side band and full amplitude carrier are needed
b.) Both side bands and full amplitude carrier are needed
c). Only two side bands are needed
d). Upper side band and part of carriers are needed
79. Satellite used for intercontinental communication is known as –
a.) Comsat
b). Dom sat
c.) Mari sat
d). Intelsat
80. Mark out non submarine cable –
a. )TAT – 7
b.) INTELSAT V
c.) ATLANTIS
d. )CANTAT 2
81. The capacity of an analog communication channel with 4kHz bandwidth and 15 dB SNR is approximately-
a). 20,000 bps
b). 16,000 bps
c.) 10,000 bps
d.) 8,000 bps
82. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a.) Carrier frequency
b.) Pulse repetition frequency
c. )Antenna rotation rate
d.) Transmitted power
83. The output voltage in a feedback series regulator circuit is regulated by controlling the-
a.) Magnitude of the input voltage
b.) Gain of the feedback transistor
c.) Reference voltage
d.) Voltage drop across the series pass transistor
84. Indicate the signal not transmitted in colour TV-
a.) Y
b.) Q
c.) R
d.) I
85. As frequency of singal increases-
a.) Directivity increases & beam width increases
b.) Directivity & beam width decreases
c.) Directivity increases & beam width decreases
d.) Directivity decreases & beam width increases
86.
The number of hardware interupts (which require an external signal to interrupt) present in on 8085 mP are
a). 1
b). 4
c.) 5
d.) 13
87.
Highest priority interupt is-
a. )INTR
b. )RST 7.5
c. )RST 6.5
d. )TRAP
88.
One instruction cycle means-
a. )Time require to execute set of instructions
b. )Time require to execute one instruction
c.) Time require to complete one operation of accessing memory, or I/o
d.) None of above
89.
If the clock freq. is 5 mH3 how much time is required to execute on instruction of 18 T-states-
a. )3.6 msec.
b.) 36 m sec.
c.) 36 m sec.
d.) 36 sec.
90.
In data transfer operation which flog get affected-
a. )zero flog
b. )carry flog
c. )sign flog.
d.) none
91.
CMP instruction comes under group -
a. )Data transfer
b. )Brouching operations
c). Machine control operation
d.) logical operations
92.
The logic operation-
a.) are performed in relation to content of Accemce lotor
b).can be performed derectly with content of the register.
c.)are performed without content of a
d.)none of above.
93.
What happen when PUSH instruction executed -
a.) data retrieved from stock to register
b.) data from register saved on the stock.
c.) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock.
d.) 16 bit address from stock retrieved
94.
SIM stands for-
a. ) serial interface memory
b.) set interrupt mosk
c. ) set if minus
d.) set internal memory
95.
Maximum clock frequency required to operate 8085-
a. )2 MHz
b.) 3 MHz
c) 6 MHz
d. )9 MHz
96.
ASCII code is-
a). 7 bit
b). 8 bit
c.)16 bit
d.) 32 bit.
97.
In memory mapped I/O address lines are-
a. ) 8
b.) 16
c.) 32
d.) 64
98.
The parity bit adding technique is used for -
a. )Indexing
b. )Coding
c. )Error detection
d. )Controlling
99. A demultiplexer-
a. )has multiple i/p and single o/p
b.) has single i/p and multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p and single o/p
100. Subroutines are useful-
a. )to reduce storage requirements
b.) to increase programming speed and reduce storage
c.) most applications are same
d.) but increases expense
101. As daring goes with temerity same way clear-sighted with –
a. )Perspicacity
b.) Impulsiveness
c.)Energy
d. )Clemency
102. A man who visits his friend is a –
a. )Host
b. )Guest
c. )Master
d.) Owner
103. Zealot is –
a. )beginner
b.) Patron
c.) fanatic
d.) Murderer
104. Give the plural of ‘Mouse’ –
a. )Mouse’s
b). Mice
c). Mouse
d). None
105. Find the part of speech of the underlined word –
Shama and Radha were playing together.
a. )Preposition.
b. )Noun
c. )Conjunction.
d). Verb.
106. Which of the following is not one of the multiple names of ganesha?
a). Vinayaka
b). Lambodra
c.) Ekadanta
d.) Vighneshwara
e. )all of the above
107. If a man weighs 60 Kilograms on earth, how much will be his weight on the moon?
a. )50 kg
b. )40 kg
c. )20 kg
d. )10 kg
108. The only Indian star selected for waxing at the famous Madame Tussaud’s wax is-
a. )Salman Khan
b. )Amitabh Bachan
c. )ShahRukh Khan.
d. )Raj Kapoor
109. Rate of gowth of per capita income in India drops down to – percent in 2000-2001-.
a. )5.3 percent
b. )3.5 percent
c. )4.8 percent
d. )8.4 percent
110. Ascorbic acid is the chemical name of-
a. )Vitamin A
b. )Vitamin B
c. )Vitamin C
d.) Vitamin D
111. All India Muslim League was founded by-
a. )Nawab Slimullah Khan
b. )Sir Mohd Iqubal
c.) Sir syed Ahmed Khan
d.) Moulana Shaukat Ali
112. Red Blood corpuscles are formed in-
a. )Marrow
b.) Kidney
c). Liver
d). heart
113. The southern most tip of India is in-
a. )Lakshadweeep
b.) Kanya Kumari
c. )Andaman and Nicobar Islands
d. )Rameswaram
114. The first bowler in cricket history to take 500 test wickets is-
a.) Imran Khan
b). Courtney Walsh
c). Shane Warne
d.) Muttiah Murlidharan
115. President of the National Consumer Disputes Redress al Commission (NCDRC) is-
a.) Mr. D.C Wadhwa
b). Mr. A. P Wadhwa
c.) Mr. A. C Wadhwa
d.) Mr. D. P Wadhwa
116. C.V. Raman got Nobel Prize for-
a. )Themodynamics
b.) Quantum theory
c. )Optics and spectroscopy
d.) Nuclear Physics
117. First governor general of Bengal-
a). Lord Clive
b.) Lord warren Hastings
c. )Lord Lytton
d.) Lord Ripon
118. The slogan “Do or Die” is associated with-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Gandhigi
c.) Harijan
d.) Satyagraha
119. Champaran is in the state of-
a). Gujarat
b). Maharashtra
c.) Bihar
d). Madhya Pradesh
120. These tribes are found in central Asia-
a. )Garos
b. )Kirghiz
c.) Lushai
d). Santhals
Sunday, October 25, 2009
BSNL GE JTO-Recruitment Examination
1. If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is-
a) Triangular
b) Trapezoidal
c)) Sinusoidal
d) Rectangular
2. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c)) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d)) None
3. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
4. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel
5.
For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
6.
A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
7.
When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET
8.
The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
9.
Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
10.
Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps
11.
The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias
12.
The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6
13.
When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats
14.
The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC
15.
Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none
16.
The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b
17. A diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width
18.
When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
19. When the two networks shown in fig. are equivalent with respect to the terminals 1 and 2 at all frequencies then the values of CA, LB, LC and CC will be –
a) 0.5, 0.33, 6, 0.166
b) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.66
c) 0.5, 3, 3, 2
d) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.166
20. The transmission parameter of the network C when the transmission parameter of the network A and B are and respectively are -
21. The statement 'In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf's reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff's law
b) Norton's theorem
c) Thevenin's theorem
d) Superposition theorem
22. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode
23. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1
24. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position
25. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network
26. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
27. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
c)
d) h12
28. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.
29. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz
30. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding
31. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
32. One of the following statements which is not true for a strip line compared to a waveguide is –
a) It can be directly connected to semiconductor microwave devices
b) It is much smaller in size
c) It has a smaller bandwidth
d) Losses are less
33. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W
34. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f
35. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560
36. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index
37. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron
38. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero
39. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these
40. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it's internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
41. The aperture time of an A to D converter is given by -
42. A memoryless system is –
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none
43. An air capacitor is a –
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device
44. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor
45. Pirani gauge is used to measure –
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow
46. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters
47. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from –
a) off state to on state
b) on state to off state
c) on state to on state
d) off state to off state
48. Q factor of a coil in Maxwell bridge is obtained as –
49. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage
50. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig
51. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back
52. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P
53. For critical damping of the resonant circuit consisting of Rd, L, C in series is –
d) none of the above
54. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d) an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages
55. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature
56. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages
57. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) They have higher input impedance
b) They have high switching time
c) They consume less power
d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
58. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
a) Increase in ICEO
b) Increase in ac current gain
c) Decrease in ac current gain
d) Increase in output resistance
59. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz
60. The output of a class B amplifier -
a) is distortion free
b) consists of positive half cycles only
c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier
d) comprises short duration current pulses
61. An amplifier with negative feedback -
a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) increases its bandwidth
d) all of the above
62. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
a) Block becomes redundant
b) A FM detector would be required
c) A high frequency signal generator
d) An additional local oscillator will be needed
63. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
d) none of the above
64. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
a) Dt = N ´ Fc
b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc
65. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be –
(y denotes don't care)
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y
66. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance
67. The 2's complement of 10002 is –
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001
68. Master slave flip-flop is made up of –
a) two flip flops connected in series
b) two flip flops connected in parallel
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch
69. Number of nybbles making one byte is –
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
70. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency
c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency
71. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) –200 dB/decade
b) –240 dB/decade
c) –230 dB/decade
d) –320 dB/decade
72. In a unity feed back control system the open loop transfer function is
The closed loop transfer unit will have pole at –
a) –2, -2
b) –2, -1
c) –2, +j1,-j1
d) –2, 2
73. In a compensating network the transfer function is of the form If this is a phase log network the value of should be –
a) exactly equal to 0
b) between 0 and 1
c) exactly equal to 1
d) greater than 1
74. Considering the conditions-
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing
3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin
System stability requirements would include
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
75. A typical control system is shown.
Assuming the steady state errors is given by
*
76. The centre and radius of M of circles are given respectively by
77. The open –loop transfer function for a unity feedback system is –
what is the steady state error if the input is,
r(t) = (2 + 3t + 4t2) u(t)
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
78. The sensitivity SGM of a system with the transfer function is given by
79.
In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs
80.
Radio Broadcasting is an example of –
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
d) none of the above
81. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a –
a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone
b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
82. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration
83. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) frequency shift keying
b) two – tone modulation
c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation
84. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
a) FM generation only
b) 100AM generation only
c) PM generation only
d) both PM and AM generation
85. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
a) reduce x-ray emission
b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots
c) increase screen brightness
d) provide degaussing for the screen
86. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
a) the keyed AGC amplifar
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current
87. Band width of microwaves is-
a) 1GHz -103 GHz
b) 1GHz –100 GHz
c) 1 GHz –10 GHz
d) 1 GHz – 106 GHz
88. In transverse Magnetic mode-
a) no electric line is in direction of propagation
b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
89.
Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to –
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None
90.
According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be –
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
91.
The transmission does not have -
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise
92.
Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device
93.
Scattering matrix equation for directional coupler is –
a)
b)
c)
d)
94.
Noise figure is calculated as –
a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio
c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100
d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio
95. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.
96. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) –5, 1
b) –2.5, 1
c) –5,0-5
d) –5, 2
97. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by
The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80
98.
A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
c) minimize free-space losses
d) maximize antenna gain
99.
The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain
100. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
d) the horizontal retrace
101. The son seems to have -------- from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt
102. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills
103. What is a collection of sheep called ?
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet
104. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither
105. What is the opposite of Asperity –
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity
106. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister's Secretariat
d) None of these
107. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President's Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned
108. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner
109. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003
110. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW
111. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869
112. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership
113. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10
114. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000 meridian
b) 00 meridian
c) 1800 meridian
d) 900 meridian
115. India's first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome
116. Name the author of the famous book "Politics"-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them
117. "Guernica" is Picasso's painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution
118. The object of the Supreme Court's Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament's amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these
119. Which country in July '99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China
120. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland
a) Triangular
b) Trapezoidal
c)) Sinusoidal
d) Rectangular
2. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c)) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d)) None
3. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
4. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel
5.
For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
6.
A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
7.
When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET
8.
The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
9.
Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
10.
Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps
11.
The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias
12.
The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6
13.
When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats
14.
The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC
15.
Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none
16.
The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b
17. A diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width
18.
When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
19. When the two networks shown in fig. are equivalent with respect to the terminals 1 and 2 at all frequencies then the values of CA, LB, LC and CC will be –
a) 0.5, 0.33, 6, 0.166
b) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.66
c) 0.5, 3, 3, 2
d) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.166
20. The transmission parameter of the network C when the transmission parameter of the network A and B are and respectively are -
21. The statement 'In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf's reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff's law
b) Norton's theorem
c) Thevenin's theorem
d) Superposition theorem
22. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode
23. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1
24. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position
25. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network
26. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
27. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
c)
d) h12
28. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.
29. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz
30. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding
31. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
32. One of the following statements which is not true for a strip line compared to a waveguide is –
a) It can be directly connected to semiconductor microwave devices
b) It is much smaller in size
c) It has a smaller bandwidth
d) Losses are less
33. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W
34. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f
35. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560
36. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index
37. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron
38. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero
39. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these
40. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it's internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
41. The aperture time of an A to D converter is given by -
42. A memoryless system is –
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none
43. An air capacitor is a –
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device
44. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor
45. Pirani gauge is used to measure –
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow
46. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters
47. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from –
a) off state to on state
b) on state to off state
c) on state to on state
d) off state to off state
48. Q factor of a coil in Maxwell bridge is obtained as –
49. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage
50. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig
51. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back
52. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P
53. For critical damping of the resonant circuit consisting of Rd, L, C in series is –
d) none of the above
54. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d) an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages
55. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature
56. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages
57. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) They have higher input impedance
b) They have high switching time
c) They consume less power
d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
58. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
a) Increase in ICEO
b) Increase in ac current gain
c) Decrease in ac current gain
d) Increase in output resistance
59. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz
60. The output of a class B amplifier -
a) is distortion free
b) consists of positive half cycles only
c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier
d) comprises short duration current pulses
61. An amplifier with negative feedback -
a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) increases its bandwidth
d) all of the above
62. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
a) Block becomes redundant
b) A FM detector would be required
c) A high frequency signal generator
d) An additional local oscillator will be needed
63. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
d) none of the above
64. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
a) Dt = N ´ Fc
b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc
65. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be –
(y denotes don't care)
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y
66. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance
67. The 2's complement of 10002 is –
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001
68. Master slave flip-flop is made up of –
a) two flip flops connected in series
b) two flip flops connected in parallel
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch
69. Number of nybbles making one byte is –
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
70. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency
c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency
71. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) –200 dB/decade
b) –240 dB/decade
c) –230 dB/decade
d) –320 dB/decade
72. In a unity feed back control system the open loop transfer function is
The closed loop transfer unit will have pole at –
a) –2, -2
b) –2, -1
c) –2, +j1,-j1
d) –2, 2
73. In a compensating network the transfer function is of the form If this is a phase log network the value of should be –
a) exactly equal to 0
b) between 0 and 1
c) exactly equal to 1
d) greater than 1
74. Considering the conditions-
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing
3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin
System stability requirements would include
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
75. A typical control system is shown.
Assuming the steady state errors is given by
*
76. The centre and radius of M of circles are given respectively by
77. The open –loop transfer function for a unity feedback system is –
what is the steady state error if the input is,
r(t) = (2 + 3t + 4t2) u(t)
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
78. The sensitivity SGM of a system with the transfer function is given by
79.
In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs
80.
Radio Broadcasting is an example of –
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
d) none of the above
81. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a –
a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone
b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
82. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration
83. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) frequency shift keying
b) two – tone modulation
c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation
84. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
a) FM generation only
b) 100AM generation only
c) PM generation only
d) both PM and AM generation
85. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
a) reduce x-ray emission
b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots
c) increase screen brightness
d) provide degaussing for the screen
86. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
a) the keyed AGC amplifar
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current
87. Band width of microwaves is-
a) 1GHz -103 GHz
b) 1GHz –100 GHz
c) 1 GHz –10 GHz
d) 1 GHz – 106 GHz
88. In transverse Magnetic mode-
a) no electric line is in direction of propagation
b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
89.
Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to –
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None
90.
According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be –
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600
91.
The transmission does not have -
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise
92.
Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device
93.
Scattering matrix equation for directional coupler is –
a)
b)
c)
d)
94.
Noise figure is calculated as –
a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio
c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100
d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio
95. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.
96. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) –5, 1
b) –2.5, 1
c) –5,0-5
d) –5, 2
97. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by
The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80
98.
A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
c) minimize free-space losses
d) maximize antenna gain
99.
The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain
100. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
d) the horizontal retrace
101. The son seems to have -------- from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt
102. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills
103. What is a collection of sheep called ?
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet
104. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither
105. What is the opposite of Asperity –
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity
106. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister's Secretariat
d) None of these
107. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President's Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned
108. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner
109. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003
110. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW
111. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869
112. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership
113. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10
114. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000 meridian
b) 00 meridian
c) 1800 meridian
d) 900 meridian
115. India's first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome
116. Name the author of the famous book "Politics"-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them
117. "Guernica" is Picasso's painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution
118. The object of the Supreme Court's Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament's amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these
119. Which country in July '99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China
120. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency series circuit is-
a.) Inductive
b.) Capacitive
c. )Resistive
d.)None
2. The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of (Ohm –1 m-1) -
a.) 107
b. )105
c. )10-4
d. )10-6
3. he output of a piezoelectric crystal has-
a. )Low amplitude and low impedance
b. )High amplitude and high impedance
c. )Low amplitude and high impedance
d.)High amplitude and low impedance
4. The time constant associated with the capacitor charging in the circuit shown in the given figure is –
a. )6ms
b. )10ms
c. )15ms
d.) 25ms
5.
The Q factor of an inductor would be higher if it is made of –
a.) Thinner wire
b.) Longer wire
c.) Shorter wire
d.) Thicker wire
6.
A cavity resonator can be represented by –
a.) An LC circuit
b.) An LCR circuit
c.) A lossy inductor
d.) A lossy capacitor
7.
Air gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents –
a.) Core saturation
b). Hysterisis loss
c.) Flux leakage
d.) Transformer action
8.
Between the plates of an air capacitor if a glass slab is slipped without moving the plate then -
a.) Its capacitance is decreased
b.) Its capacitance is increased
c.) Its capacitance is hardly affected
d. )Capacitor is discharged
9.
For current to flow, a circuit must be –
a.) Isolated
b). Insulated
c.) Complete
d.) Protected
10.
Human ear can detect sound intensities of the order of –
a.) 10-20 w/m2
b). 10-13 w/m2
c.) 10-6 w/m2
d.) 10-3 w/m2
11.
A FET operates on –
a). Majority carriers only
b). Minority carriers only
c). Positively charged ions only
d.) None
12.
An SCR can conduct for a full half cycle or any part of it –
a. )and continue conduction for other half cycle
b.) but blocks the conduction for other half cycle
c.) nothing can be said
d.) none
13.
In CRT aquadag carries -
a. )aqueous solution of graphite
b. )sweep voltage
c. )secondary emission electrons
d.) none of the above
14.
From the following circuit, in order to obtain a 12-v stabilized supply the input to the terminals A and B
should be -
a.)less than 12v with terminal A positive with respect to terminal B
b. )greater than 12v with B positive with respect to A
c. )less than 12v with A negative with respect to B
d. )greater than 12v with A positive with respect to B
15.
When the value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 Na then the value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180c would be –
a. )8mA
b. )160 hA
c. )1mA
d. )7.84mA
16.
MOSFET can operate in –
a. )Depletion mode
b. )Enhancement mode
c. )Depletion-only mode
d. )Both a & b
17. For a circuit design the very factor of an SCR, which is to be taken into account is –
a. )
d.) None
18.
The functions of an oxide layer in an IC device is to –
a.) mask against diffusion or ion implant
b.) insulate the surface electrically
c.) produce a chemically stable protective layer
d.) all the above
19.
One of the following bipolar transistors which has the highest current gain bandwidth product for similar geometry is –
a.) NPN germanium transistor
b.) NPN silicon transistor
c.) PNP germanium transistor
d. )PNP silicon transistor.
20.
With the increasing temperature, the electrical conductivity would –
a.) Increase in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
b.) Increase in metals but decrease in intrinsic semiconductors.
c. )Decrease in metals but increase in intrinsic semiconductors.
d. )Decrease in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
21. For the following circuit, the current X is 3A then the power delivered by the dependent current source D is –
a.) 50 watts
b) 50 watts
c. )1500 watts
d. )15000 watts
22. The current in resistor R shown in the fig. will be –
a.) 0.2A
b.) 0.4A
c.) 0.6A
d.) 0.8A
23. In the network shown in the given fig. the capacitor C1 is initially charged to a voltage V0 before the switch S in the circuit is closed. In the steady state-
a.)C1 and C2 are charged to equal voltages
b.) C1 and C2 are charged with equal coulombs
c. )C1 and C2 are discharged fully
d. ) C2 alone is charged to voltage V0
24. The equivalent circuit of a wire-wound resistor can be represented as –
25. For the fig. shown the fundamental cutset for the branch 12 is –
a. )2, 1, 5
b. )2, 6, 7, 8
c. )2, 1, 3, 4,5
d. )2, 3, 4
26. Ideally, attenuator pads should not change –
a. )voltage level
b.) impedance level
c.) power level
d.) voltage, power or impedance level
27. When the two networks are cascaded through an ideal Buffer and if tr1 and tr2 are the rise times of the two networks, then the overall delay of the two networks together will be –
28. For the network shown in the following fig. one of the following theorems which can be conveniently used to calculate the power consumed by the 10W resistor is –
a. )Thevenin's theorem
b.) Maximum power transfer theorem
c.) Millman's theorem
d.) Superposition theorem
29. The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of –
a. )KVL
b.) KCL
c.) Ohm's law
d.) Both b and c
30. When the driving point impedance of a network at a frequency of 1Hz is then the impedance can be realised as –
31. For a lossless line-
1. Series resistance is zero 2. Shunt conductance is zero
3. Shunt conductance is infinite 4. Series resistance is infinite
a. ) 1 & 2
b. )2 & 3
c. ) 2 & 4
d.)3 & 4
32. When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit then-
a.) Voltage across R is square and across C is not square
b) Voltage across C is not square and across R is not square
c. ) Voltage across both R and C are square
d. )Voltage across both R and C are not square
33. When an A.M. broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kw power when the modulation percentage is 60 then the power of the carrier is-
a. ) 5.00 kw
b.) 7.69 kw
c.) 8.47 kw
d.) 9.17 kw
34. The main components of atmosphere responsible for absorption of em waves are -
a. ) Nitrogen and Oxygen
b. )Nitrogen and hydrogen
c.) Oxygen and water vapour
d. )Nitrogen and water vapour
35. The effective height of a linear antenna of length ‘l’ is say ‘x’ when the current distribution along it’s length is uniform and say, it is ‘y’ when the current distribution is sinusoidal then x/y is equal to -
a.) 2
b.) 1
c. ) 4/ p
d.) p/4
36. In a hollow rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity -
a.) Increases with increasing frequency
b.)Decreases with increasing frequency
c. ) Is independent of frequency
d.)Will vary with frequency depending upon the frequency range
37. For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency of (fc is the cut–off frequency )-
a.) 3fc
*
38. When a transmission line having 50 impedance is terminated in a load of ( 40 + j30) W then the VSWR is –
a.) j 0.033
b.)0.8 + j 0.6
c.) 1
d.)2
39. The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propogation at-
a. )High frequencies
b.)Ultra-high frequencies
c. ) Microwave frequencies
d.)Optical frequencies
40. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by-
a. )100%
b. )150 %
c. )50%
d.) 0%
41. Reluctances in series are –
a. )Subtractive
b.) Additive
c.) Multiplicative
d.) None.
42. When the meters X and Y requires 40 mA and 50 mA respectively for full scale deflection then –
a. )X is more sensitive
b.) Y is more sensitive
c. )both are equally sensitive
d.) not possible to determine from the given data.
43. In the context of ac bridge measurement the term "Wagner Ground" means –
a.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray magnetic effects.
b.) any unwanted and unintended ground connection.
c.) a large metal plate buried in the ground and connected to one corner of the bridge.
d.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray capacitance effects.
44. The gating and counting circuits of a digital counter –
a. )cannot handle MHz signals
b.) cannot handle GHz signals
c. )can handle GHz signals
d.) none.
45. De- sauty bridge is more widely used because of –
a. )simplicity
b. )perfect balance for imperfect capacitors
c. )perfect balance for air capacitors
d.) maximum sensitivity.
46. A schottky diode clamp is used along with a switching BJT for –
a. )reducing the power dissipation.
b. )reducing the switching time
c. )increasing the value of b
d.) reducing the base current.
47. The phenomenon of creeping occurs in –
a. )Energy meters
b.) Ammeters
c. )Wattmeter
d. )Voltmeters
48. A permanent magnet moving coil measures the –
a. )true rms value
b.) dc value
c.) peak value
d. )rms plus dc value
49. 49. The D`Arsonval meter movement can be converted into an audio frequency ac ammeter by adding to it a-
a. )thermocouple
b.) rectifier
c.) chopper
d. )transducer
50. Which one of the following detectors is generally used in ac bridges for audio frequency range ?
a. )Ac voltmeter
b. )CRO
c. )Headphones
d.) Vibration galvanometer.
51.
In single phase circuit capacitor used for power factor correction decreases –
a.) The power factor
b.) The line current
c.) Both a and b
d.) The line current and increases power factor
52.
In the given figure X the balanced bridge should be
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self-inductance having resistance
b. )A capacitance
c. )A non-Inductive resistance
d. )An inductance and a capacitance in parallel
53.
SiO2 layer in an integrated circuit provides –
a. )Electrical connection to external circuit
b.) Physical strength
c. )Isolation
d. )Conducting path
54.
For an SCR with turn on time of 5 microsecond, an ideal trigger pulse should have-
a. )short rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
b. )vlong rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
c. )short rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
d.)long rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
55. In a 3-phase half wave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to per phase maximum a c voltage is-
a) 0.955
b. )0.827
c.) 1.654
d. )1.169
56. In multiple pulse modulation used in PWN inverters, the amplitude and frequency for triangular carrier and square reference signals are respectively 4V, 6 KH2 and 1V, 1KH2. The number of pulses per half cycle and pulse width is respectively-.
a. )6, 900
b. )3, 450
c. )4, 600
d.) 3, 400
57. A four quadrant operation requires-
a. )two full converters in series.
b.) two full converters connected back to back.
c.) two full converters connected in parallel.
d.) two semi converters connected back to back
58. In voltage source inverters-
a. )load voltage waveform o depends on load impedance z, where as load current waveform io does not depend on z,
b. )Both o and io depend on z,
c.) o does not depend on z where as depends on z
d. )both o and do not depend on z
59. For an RC driving – point impedance function, the poles and zeros-
a. )should alternate on real axis
b.) should alternate only on the negative real axis
c.) should alternate on the imaginary axis
d.) can lie anywhere on the left half place.
60.
The functions of connecting a resistor in series with gate - cathode circuit and a zener diode across gate cathode circuit are, respectively to protect the gate circuit from-
a.) over voltages, over currents.
b. )over currents over voltages.
c. )over currents, noise signals
d. )noise signals, over voltages.
61. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a.) A resonant circuit is used as load
b.) The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c. ) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive
d. )None of the above
62. The circuit diagram shown in the figure consist of transistor is -
a. ) Parallel connection
b.) Cascode connection
c. ) Darlington connection
d. )Cascade connection
63. Increase of current in one transistor in a direct coupled circuit -
a. ) Causes an increase in current in other transistors of the circuit
b. )Causes a decrease in current in other transistor
c. )Does not affect the currents of other transistors connected in the circuit
d. )May either increase or decrease currents of other transistors connected in the circuit.
64. In a PNP transistor the charge carriers in the base region which play an important role in the operation of the transistor are-
a. ) The majority carriers
b.) The minority carriers
c. ) Nothing can be said
d. )None of the above
65. Voltage gain in a CC amplifier is-
a. )Cannot exceed unity
b. )Is always constant
c. ) Is dependent on input signal
d. )Depends on output impedance
66. Random-access-memory means –
a. )memory in a random fashion
b. )memory in a zigzag fashion
c. )memory in a circular fashion
d. )memory in a square fashion
67. BCD code is –
a. )an alphanumeric code
b. )a binary code
c .) the same thing as binary numbers
d. )non-weighed
68. The transfer function of a system is . The phase swift at w = 0 and w = a will be -
a.) 900 and –00
b. )-900 and 900
c. )-1800 and 1800
d. )None of the above
69. Number of resolutions in a 8 bit D/A converter is –
a. )8 bit
b.) 4 bit
c. )6 bit
d.) 10 bit
70. A bistable multivibrator is used as a –
a.) Free running multivibrator
b.) Frequency multiplier
c.) Frequency divider
d. )Wave shaper
71. The transfer function of a system is The phase shift at w = o and w = will be –
a. )900 and -00
b. )–900 and 900
c. )–1800 and 1800
d. )none of the above.
72. A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback control system is equal to The unit step response of this system starting from rest will have its maximum value at a time equal to –
a. )0 sec
b. )0.56 sec
c. )5.6 sec
d.) infinity.
73. To obtain the output position in a position control system, which one of the following transducers is used-
a.) Strain Gauge
b.) Load cell
c. )Synchro
d.) Thermistor
74. The maximum resonance peak for the second order transfer function T(S) = will be –
a. )4
b. )4/3
c. )2
75. Considering control system in the given fig .
For slight variation in G, the ratio of open loop sensitivity to closed pool
sensitivity will be given by-
a.) 1: (1+GH)
b.) 1 : (1+GH)-1
c. )1 : (1-GH)
d. )1 : (1-GH)-1
76. The diversity system in Troposcatter links is made use of to-
a. )Increase the bandwidth
b.) Prevent noise effects
c.) Increase the directivity of the antenna.
d.) Detect signal in the presence of fading.
77. Mark out wrong statement regarding compandor-
a.) It compresses the higher amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back to normal again after demodulation.
b.) It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c.) For weaker signals, it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error.
d. )Weaker signals, transverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error is reduced
78. Among other equipment a sub marine cable repeater contains –
a.) A dc power supply and regulator
b. )Filters for the two directions of transmission
c.) Multiplexing and demultiplexing equipment
d.) Pilot inject and pilot extract equipment
79. In a communication system noice is most likely to affect the signal-
a.) At the transmitter
b.) In the channel
c.) In the information source
d.) At the destination
80. The given circuit is a –
a.) Monostable multivibrator
b.) Frequency division circuit
c.) Miller sweeps circuit
d.) Bootstrap sweep circuit
81. In a plane transverse electromagnetic wave-
a.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is O.
b.)Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 900
c.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 1800
d.) None of above.
82. Directional coupler is a function of-
a.) Two port wave-guide
b.) Four port wove guide
c. )Single port wave-guide
d.) Size port wave-guide.
83.
Isolators are used to couple generator and load because –
a.) It increases power of signal
b.) To match any load with generator
c. )To get phase shifted o/p
d.) To differentiate load & generator
84.
In travelling wave tube for getting amplified output -
a. )Electron beam travels and RF field remains stationary
b.) Both electron beam and RF field travels in same direction
c. )Both electron beam and RF field remains stationary
d.) RF field travels and electron beam remains stationary
85.
Crystal diode works on principle of –
a. )Negative resistance
b. )Positive resistance
c. )Square low
d.) Linear impedance
86.
In gunn effect oscillator which mode having lowest operating frequency –
a. )Domain mode
b. )Delayed domain mode
c. )Quenched domain mode
d. )LSA mode
87.
In Reflex klystron maximum energy transferred to gap by electrons-
a. )eR
b. )ee
c. )el
d. )eR , ee, el
88.
The radio waves get absorbed by atmosphere depends –
a.) Their distance from transmitter is long
b.) Wave power is weak
c. )Improper polarization of wave
d.) Frequency of waves
89.
8085 mP has no of sets of communication lines-
a. )2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d. ) None
90.
No. of o/p ports in peripheral mopped I/p are up to-
a.) 32
b.) 64
c. ) 128
d.) 256
91.
Is two byte instruction-
a.) MOV A, B
b.) ANA B
c.) MV I B, 92 H
d.) LHLD 2050 H
92.
Banch instructions-
a. ) only uses flogs setting to make decision.
b. )only sets flogs according to results.
c. ) uses flogs settings as well as sets flogs setting
d. )nighteruse flog settings not set flogs.
93.
What will be the time delay achieved from following loop-
Loop DCX B 6
MOV A, C, 4
ORA B 4
JNZ Loop 10
system clock freg. = 2 MHz.
a. ) 10 m s
b.)12 m s
c.) 14 m s
d. )16 m s
94.
After execution of pop statement-
a. ) Stack pointer decremented by 2
b.) Stack pointer incremented by 2
c.) Stack pointer decremented by 1
d. )Stack pointer incremented by 1
95.
Labels are used as an alternative for-
a.) Data
b.) Register name
c.) Memory address
d) Stack pointer
96.
Microprogramming is a technique-
a) For programming the microprocessor
b.) For writing small programs efficiently
c. )For programming the control steps of computer
d.) For programming o/p / i/p
97. 00110010 – 01000101 =?
a.) 00010011
b. )11101101
c. )11100011
d. )11100100
98. When an array is possed as an argument to a function what exactly gets possed-
a.) Address of the array
b. )Values of elements of array
c.) Number of elements of array
d. )Address of the first element of the array
99. A write cycle time means-
a.) Minimum length of write pulse
b.) Minimum amount of time for which data must be valid before write pulse end
c.) Minimum time required between successive write operation
d.) Minimum time for which data must be valid after write pulse ends
100. If three i/p of a gate are 1, 0, 1 then output is O the gate must be-
a.) NOT
b.) AND
c.) OR
d. )NAND.
101. Inverting amplifier configuration using operational amplifier is –
102. Which logic family is most faster-
a.) ECL
b.) DCTL
c.) RTL
d) TTL
103. For getting positive o/p from two i/p OR gate for positive logic-
a.) both i/p must be positive
b.) both i/p must be negative
c.) any one of i/p must be positive
d.) undefined condition
104. Supercilious is –
a. )Harighty
b.) High brow
c.) Angry
d.) Inane.
105. Give the synonym of 'moribund'-
a.) Undertaking
b.) Burial
c.) Leather bound
d.) Dying
106. The convention was to end on May 13 with a month long break in between. What do the two prepositions indicate?
a.) Duration
b.) Time
c) Direction
d.) Position
107. According to the writer what influences our dreams-
a. )inner censorships
b.) the stories
c. )the tales
d) none.
108. Vaunted is –
a.) Unvanquished
b.) Fell.
c.)Belittled
d.) Exacting.
109. The sun rays falls vertically on -
a.) Tropics
b.) Doldrums
c.) Poles
d.) Equator
110. Trimurti is associated with -
a.) Ellora
b.) Ajanta
c.) Khajuraho
d.) Elephant caves
111. n which year did the congress adopt “Poorna Swaraj” or complete independence as its goal?
a.) 1930
b.) 1929
c.) 1928
d.) 1942
112. Director of CBI-
a.) D.C Sharma
b.) A. M Shrivastava
c.) P.C Sharma
d.) P.C Dole
113. Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to -
a.) P. gopichand
b.) P. T Usha
c.) Sachin Tendulkar
d.) Gurpreet Singh
114. During which time is vist to Mecca treated as Haj?
a.) Id-Ul-Fitr
b) Id-ul-Zuha
c. )Milad-un-Nabi
d.) Any time
115. Of the 109 known metals, how many occur in nature and how many are produced synthetically in particle accelerators!
a.) 79 and 10
b.) 80 and 29
c. )95 and 14
d.) None can be produced synthetically
116. Earth’s average speed per second around the sun is -
a.) 30 km
b. ) 32 km
c.) 34 km
d.) 35 km
117. Governor of Reserve Bank of India is -
a.) Bimal Jalan
b.) C. Ranga Rajan
c. )Rana Malhotra
d. )S. Venkata Ramanan
118. The first pope to enter a mosque in Damascus syria is -
a )Pope John Paul II
b.) Pope John Paul I
c.) Pope John Paul III
d. )Pope John Paul V
119. Uranium is found in the state of -
a.) Orissa
b.) A. P
c.) Karnataka
d. )Bihar
120. Nuclear Power plant in Pakistan is located at-
a. )Karachi
b.) Peshawar
c. )Ellipse
d.) Paraboloid
a.) Inductive
b.) Capacitive
c. )Resistive
d.)None
2. The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of (Ohm –1 m-1) -
a.) 107
b. )105
c. )10-4
d. )10-6
3. he output of a piezoelectric crystal has-
a. )Low amplitude and low impedance
b. )High amplitude and high impedance
c. )Low amplitude and high impedance
d.)High amplitude and low impedance
4. The time constant associated with the capacitor charging in the circuit shown in the given figure is –
a. )6ms
b. )10ms
c. )15ms
d.) 25ms
5.
The Q factor of an inductor would be higher if it is made of –
a.) Thinner wire
b.) Longer wire
c.) Shorter wire
d.) Thicker wire
6.
A cavity resonator can be represented by –
a.) An LC circuit
b.) An LCR circuit
c.) A lossy inductor
d.) A lossy capacitor
7.
Air gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents –
a.) Core saturation
b). Hysterisis loss
c.) Flux leakage
d.) Transformer action
8.
Between the plates of an air capacitor if a glass slab is slipped without moving the plate then -
a.) Its capacitance is decreased
b.) Its capacitance is increased
c.) Its capacitance is hardly affected
d. )Capacitor is discharged
9.
For current to flow, a circuit must be –
a.) Isolated
b). Insulated
c.) Complete
d.) Protected
10.
Human ear can detect sound intensities of the order of –
a.) 10-20 w/m2
b). 10-13 w/m2
c.) 10-6 w/m2
d.) 10-3 w/m2
11.
A FET operates on –
a). Majority carriers only
b). Minority carriers only
c). Positively charged ions only
d.) None
12.
An SCR can conduct for a full half cycle or any part of it –
a. )and continue conduction for other half cycle
b.) but blocks the conduction for other half cycle
c.) nothing can be said
d.) none
13.
In CRT aquadag carries -
a. )aqueous solution of graphite
b. )sweep voltage
c. )secondary emission electrons
d.) none of the above
14.
From the following circuit, in order to obtain a 12-v stabilized supply the input to the terminals A and B
should be -
a.)less than 12v with terminal A positive with respect to terminal B
b. )greater than 12v with B positive with respect to A
c. )less than 12v with A negative with respect to B
d. )greater than 12v with A positive with respect to B
15.
When the value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 Na then the value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180c would be –
a. )8mA
b. )160 hA
c. )1mA
d. )7.84mA
16.
MOSFET can operate in –
a. )Depletion mode
b. )Enhancement mode
c. )Depletion-only mode
d. )Both a & b
17. For a circuit design the very factor of an SCR, which is to be taken into account is –
a. )
d.) None
18.
The functions of an oxide layer in an IC device is to –
a.) mask against diffusion or ion implant
b.) insulate the surface electrically
c.) produce a chemically stable protective layer
d.) all the above
19.
One of the following bipolar transistors which has the highest current gain bandwidth product for similar geometry is –
a.) NPN germanium transistor
b.) NPN silicon transistor
c.) PNP germanium transistor
d. )PNP silicon transistor.
20.
With the increasing temperature, the electrical conductivity would –
a.) Increase in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
b.) Increase in metals but decrease in intrinsic semiconductors.
c. )Decrease in metals but increase in intrinsic semiconductors.
d. )Decrease in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
21. For the following circuit, the current X is 3A then the power delivered by the dependent current source D is –
a.) 50 watts
b) 50 watts
c. )1500 watts
d. )15000 watts
22. The current in resistor R shown in the fig. will be –
a.) 0.2A
b.) 0.4A
c.) 0.6A
d.) 0.8A
23. In the network shown in the given fig. the capacitor C1 is initially charged to a voltage V0 before the switch S in the circuit is closed. In the steady state-
a.)C1 and C2 are charged to equal voltages
b.) C1 and C2 are charged with equal coulombs
c. )C1 and C2 are discharged fully
d. ) C2 alone is charged to voltage V0
24. The equivalent circuit of a wire-wound resistor can be represented as –
25. For the fig. shown the fundamental cutset for the branch 12 is –
a. )2, 1, 5
b. )2, 6, 7, 8
c. )2, 1, 3, 4,5
d. )2, 3, 4
26. Ideally, attenuator pads should not change –
a. )voltage level
b.) impedance level
c.) power level
d.) voltage, power or impedance level
27. When the two networks are cascaded through an ideal Buffer and if tr1 and tr2 are the rise times of the two networks, then the overall delay of the two networks together will be –
28. For the network shown in the following fig. one of the following theorems which can be conveniently used to calculate the power consumed by the 10W resistor is –
a. )Thevenin's theorem
b.) Maximum power transfer theorem
c.) Millman's theorem
d.) Superposition theorem
29. The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of –
a. )KVL
b.) KCL
c.) Ohm's law
d.) Both b and c
30. When the driving point impedance of a network at a frequency of 1Hz is then the impedance can be realised as –
31. For a lossless line-
1. Series resistance is zero 2. Shunt conductance is zero
3. Shunt conductance is infinite 4. Series resistance is infinite
a. ) 1 & 2
b. )2 & 3
c. ) 2 & 4
d.)3 & 4
32. When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit then-
a.) Voltage across R is square and across C is not square
b) Voltage across C is not square and across R is not square
c. ) Voltage across both R and C are square
d. )Voltage across both R and C are not square
33. When an A.M. broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kw power when the modulation percentage is 60 then the power of the carrier is-
a. ) 5.00 kw
b.) 7.69 kw
c.) 8.47 kw
d.) 9.17 kw
34. The main components of atmosphere responsible for absorption of em waves are -
a. ) Nitrogen and Oxygen
b. )Nitrogen and hydrogen
c.) Oxygen and water vapour
d. )Nitrogen and water vapour
35. The effective height of a linear antenna of length ‘l’ is say ‘x’ when the current distribution along it’s length is uniform and say, it is ‘y’ when the current distribution is sinusoidal then x/y is equal to -
a.) 2
b.) 1
c. ) 4/ p
d.) p/4
36. In a hollow rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity -
a.) Increases with increasing frequency
b.)Decreases with increasing frequency
c. ) Is independent of frequency
d.)Will vary with frequency depending upon the frequency range
37. For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency of (fc is the cut–off frequency )-
a.) 3fc
*
38. When a transmission line having 50 impedance is terminated in a load of ( 40 + j30) W then the VSWR is –
a.) j 0.033
b.)0.8 + j 0.6
c.) 1
d.)2
39. The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propogation at-
a. )High frequencies
b.)Ultra-high frequencies
c. ) Microwave frequencies
d.)Optical frequencies
40. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by-
a. )100%
b. )150 %
c. )50%
d.) 0%
41. Reluctances in series are –
a. )Subtractive
b.) Additive
c.) Multiplicative
d.) None.
42. When the meters X and Y requires 40 mA and 50 mA respectively for full scale deflection then –
a. )X is more sensitive
b.) Y is more sensitive
c. )both are equally sensitive
d.) not possible to determine from the given data.
43. In the context of ac bridge measurement the term "Wagner Ground" means –
a.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray magnetic effects.
b.) any unwanted and unintended ground connection.
c.) a large metal plate buried in the ground and connected to one corner of the bridge.
d.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray capacitance effects.
44. The gating and counting circuits of a digital counter –
a. )cannot handle MHz signals
b.) cannot handle GHz signals
c. )can handle GHz signals
d.) none.
45. De- sauty bridge is more widely used because of –
a. )simplicity
b. )perfect balance for imperfect capacitors
c. )perfect balance for air capacitors
d.) maximum sensitivity.
46. A schottky diode clamp is used along with a switching BJT for –
a. )reducing the power dissipation.
b. )reducing the switching time
c. )increasing the value of b
d.) reducing the base current.
47. The phenomenon of creeping occurs in –
a. )Energy meters
b.) Ammeters
c. )Wattmeter
d. )Voltmeters
48. A permanent magnet moving coil measures the –
a. )true rms value
b.) dc value
c.) peak value
d. )rms plus dc value
49. 49. The D`Arsonval meter movement can be converted into an audio frequency ac ammeter by adding to it a-
a. )thermocouple
b.) rectifier
c.) chopper
d. )transducer
50. Which one of the following detectors is generally used in ac bridges for audio frequency range ?
a. )Ac voltmeter
b. )CRO
c. )Headphones
d.) Vibration galvanometer.
51.
In single phase circuit capacitor used for power factor correction decreases –
a.) The power factor
b.) The line current
c.) Both a and b
d.) The line current and increases power factor
52.
In the given figure X the balanced bridge should be
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self-inductance having resistance
b. )A capacitance
c. )A non-Inductive resistance
d. )An inductance and a capacitance in parallel
53.
SiO2 layer in an integrated circuit provides –
a. )Electrical connection to external circuit
b.) Physical strength
c. )Isolation
d. )Conducting path
54.
For an SCR with turn on time of 5 microsecond, an ideal trigger pulse should have-
a. )short rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
b. )vlong rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
c. )short rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
d.)long rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
55. In a 3-phase half wave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to per phase maximum a c voltage is-
a) 0.955
b. )0.827
c.) 1.654
d. )1.169
56. In multiple pulse modulation used in PWN inverters, the amplitude and frequency for triangular carrier and square reference signals are respectively 4V, 6 KH2 and 1V, 1KH2. The number of pulses per half cycle and pulse width is respectively-.
a. )6, 900
b. )3, 450
c. )4, 600
d.) 3, 400
57. A four quadrant operation requires-
a. )two full converters in series.
b.) two full converters connected back to back.
c.) two full converters connected in parallel.
d.) two semi converters connected back to back
58. In voltage source inverters-
a. )load voltage waveform o depends on load impedance z, where as load current waveform io does not depend on z,
b. )Both o and io depend on z,
c.) o does not depend on z where as depends on z
d. )both o and do not depend on z
59. For an RC driving – point impedance function, the poles and zeros-
a. )should alternate on real axis
b.) should alternate only on the negative real axis
c.) should alternate on the imaginary axis
d.) can lie anywhere on the left half place.
60.
The functions of connecting a resistor in series with gate - cathode circuit and a zener diode across gate cathode circuit are, respectively to protect the gate circuit from-
a.) over voltages, over currents.
b. )over currents over voltages.
c. )over currents, noise signals
d. )noise signals, over voltages.
61. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a.) A resonant circuit is used as load
b.) The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c. ) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive
d. )None of the above
62. The circuit diagram shown in the figure consist of transistor is -
a. ) Parallel connection
b.) Cascode connection
c. ) Darlington connection
d. )Cascade connection
63. Increase of current in one transistor in a direct coupled circuit -
a. ) Causes an increase in current in other transistors of the circuit
b. )Causes a decrease in current in other transistor
c. )Does not affect the currents of other transistors connected in the circuit
d. )May either increase or decrease currents of other transistors connected in the circuit.
64. In a PNP transistor the charge carriers in the base region which play an important role in the operation of the transistor are-
a. ) The majority carriers
b.) The minority carriers
c. ) Nothing can be said
d. )None of the above
65. Voltage gain in a CC amplifier is-
a. )Cannot exceed unity
b. )Is always constant
c. ) Is dependent on input signal
d. )Depends on output impedance
66. Random-access-memory means –
a. )memory in a random fashion
b. )memory in a zigzag fashion
c. )memory in a circular fashion
d. )memory in a square fashion
67. BCD code is –
a. )an alphanumeric code
b. )a binary code
c .) the same thing as binary numbers
d. )non-weighed
68. The transfer function of a system is . The phase swift at w = 0 and w = a will be -
a.) 900 and –00
b. )-900 and 900
c. )-1800 and 1800
d. )None of the above
69. Number of resolutions in a 8 bit D/A converter is –
a. )8 bit
b.) 4 bit
c. )6 bit
d.) 10 bit
70. A bistable multivibrator is used as a –
a.) Free running multivibrator
b.) Frequency multiplier
c.) Frequency divider
d. )Wave shaper
71. The transfer function of a system is The phase shift at w = o and w = will be –
a. )900 and -00
b. )–900 and 900
c. )–1800 and 1800
d. )none of the above.
72. A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback control system is equal to The unit step response of this system starting from rest will have its maximum value at a time equal to –
a. )0 sec
b. )0.56 sec
c. )5.6 sec
d.) infinity.
73. To obtain the output position in a position control system, which one of the following transducers is used-
a.) Strain Gauge
b.) Load cell
c. )Synchro
d.) Thermistor
74. The maximum resonance peak for the second order transfer function T(S) = will be –
a. )4
b. )4/3
c. )2
75. Considering control system in the given fig .
For slight variation in G, the ratio of open loop sensitivity to closed pool
sensitivity will be given by-
a.) 1: (1+GH)
b.) 1 : (1+GH)-1
c. )1 : (1-GH)
d. )1 : (1-GH)-1
76. The diversity system in Troposcatter links is made use of to-
a. )Increase the bandwidth
b.) Prevent noise effects
c.) Increase the directivity of the antenna.
d.) Detect signal in the presence of fading.
77. Mark out wrong statement regarding compandor-
a.) It compresses the higher amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back to normal again after demodulation.
b.) It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c.) For weaker signals, it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error.
d. )Weaker signals, transverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error is reduced
78. Among other equipment a sub marine cable repeater contains –
a.) A dc power supply and regulator
b. )Filters for the two directions of transmission
c.) Multiplexing and demultiplexing equipment
d.) Pilot inject and pilot extract equipment
79. In a communication system noice is most likely to affect the signal-
a.) At the transmitter
b.) In the channel
c.) In the information source
d.) At the destination
80. The given circuit is a –
a.) Monostable multivibrator
b.) Frequency division circuit
c.) Miller sweeps circuit
d.) Bootstrap sweep circuit
81. In a plane transverse electromagnetic wave-
a.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is O.
b.)Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 900
c.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 1800
d.) None of above.
82. Directional coupler is a function of-
a.) Two port wave-guide
b.) Four port wove guide
c. )Single port wave-guide
d.) Size port wave-guide.
83.
Isolators are used to couple generator and load because –
a.) It increases power of signal
b.) To match any load with generator
c. )To get phase shifted o/p
d.) To differentiate load & generator
84.
In travelling wave tube for getting amplified output -
a. )Electron beam travels and RF field remains stationary
b.) Both electron beam and RF field travels in same direction
c. )Both electron beam and RF field remains stationary
d.) RF field travels and electron beam remains stationary
85.
Crystal diode works on principle of –
a. )Negative resistance
b. )Positive resistance
c. )Square low
d.) Linear impedance
86.
In gunn effect oscillator which mode having lowest operating frequency –
a. )Domain mode
b. )Delayed domain mode
c. )Quenched domain mode
d. )LSA mode
87.
In Reflex klystron maximum energy transferred to gap by electrons-
a. )eR
b. )ee
c. )el
d. )eR , ee, el
88.
The radio waves get absorbed by atmosphere depends –
a.) Their distance from transmitter is long
b.) Wave power is weak
c. )Improper polarization of wave
d.) Frequency of waves
89.
8085 mP has no of sets of communication lines-
a. )2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d. ) None
90.
No. of o/p ports in peripheral mopped I/p are up to-
a.) 32
b.) 64
c. ) 128
d.) 256
91.
Is two byte instruction-
a.) MOV A, B
b.) ANA B
c.) MV I B, 92 H
d.) LHLD 2050 H
92.
Banch instructions-
a. ) only uses flogs setting to make decision.
b. )only sets flogs according to results.
c. ) uses flogs settings as well as sets flogs setting
d. )nighteruse flog settings not set flogs.
93.
What will be the time delay achieved from following loop-
Loop DCX B 6
MOV A, C, 4
ORA B 4
JNZ Loop 10
system clock freg. = 2 MHz.
a. ) 10 m s
b.)12 m s
c.) 14 m s
d. )16 m s
94.
After execution of pop statement-
a. ) Stack pointer decremented by 2
b.) Stack pointer incremented by 2
c.) Stack pointer decremented by 1
d. )Stack pointer incremented by 1
95.
Labels are used as an alternative for-
a.) Data
b.) Register name
c.) Memory address
d) Stack pointer
96.
Microprogramming is a technique-
a) For programming the microprocessor
b.) For writing small programs efficiently
c. )For programming the control steps of computer
d.) For programming o/p / i/p
97. 00110010 – 01000101 =?
a.) 00010011
b. )11101101
c. )11100011
d. )11100100
98. When an array is possed as an argument to a function what exactly gets possed-
a.) Address of the array
b. )Values of elements of array
c.) Number of elements of array
d. )Address of the first element of the array
99. A write cycle time means-
a.) Minimum length of write pulse
b.) Minimum amount of time for which data must be valid before write pulse end
c.) Minimum time required between successive write operation
d.) Minimum time for which data must be valid after write pulse ends
100. If three i/p of a gate are 1, 0, 1 then output is O the gate must be-
a.) NOT
b.) AND
c.) OR
d. )NAND.
101. Inverting amplifier configuration using operational amplifier is –
102. Which logic family is most faster-
a.) ECL
b.) DCTL
c.) RTL
d) TTL
103. For getting positive o/p from two i/p OR gate for positive logic-
a.) both i/p must be positive
b.) both i/p must be negative
c.) any one of i/p must be positive
d.) undefined condition
104. Supercilious is –
a. )Harighty
b.) High brow
c.) Angry
d.) Inane.
105. Give the synonym of 'moribund'-
a.) Undertaking
b.) Burial
c.) Leather bound
d.) Dying
106. The convention was to end on May 13 with a month long break in between. What do the two prepositions indicate?
a.) Duration
b.) Time
c) Direction
d.) Position
107. According to the writer what influences our dreams-
a. )inner censorships
b.) the stories
c. )the tales
d) none.
108. Vaunted is –
a.) Unvanquished
b.) Fell.
c.)Belittled
d.) Exacting.
109. The sun rays falls vertically on -
a.) Tropics
b.) Doldrums
c.) Poles
d.) Equator
110. Trimurti is associated with -
a.) Ellora
b.) Ajanta
c.) Khajuraho
d.) Elephant caves
111. n which year did the congress adopt “Poorna Swaraj” or complete independence as its goal?
a.) 1930
b.) 1929
c.) 1928
d.) 1942
112. Director of CBI-
a.) D.C Sharma
b.) A. M Shrivastava
c.) P.C Sharma
d.) P.C Dole
113. Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to -
a.) P. gopichand
b.) P. T Usha
c.) Sachin Tendulkar
d.) Gurpreet Singh
114. During which time is vist to Mecca treated as Haj?
a.) Id-Ul-Fitr
b) Id-ul-Zuha
c. )Milad-un-Nabi
d.) Any time
115. Of the 109 known metals, how many occur in nature and how many are produced synthetically in particle accelerators!
a.) 79 and 10
b.) 80 and 29
c. )95 and 14
d.) None can be produced synthetically
116. Earth’s average speed per second around the sun is -
a.) 30 km
b. ) 32 km
c.) 34 km
d.) 35 km
117. Governor of Reserve Bank of India is -
a.) Bimal Jalan
b.) C. Ranga Rajan
c. )Rana Malhotra
d. )S. Venkata Ramanan
118. The first pope to enter a mosque in Damascus syria is -
a )Pope John Paul II
b.) Pope John Paul I
c.) Pope John Paul III
d. )Pope John Paul V
119. Uranium is found in the state of -
a.) Orissa
b.) A. P
c.) Karnataka
d. )Bihar
120. Nuclear Power plant in Pakistan is located at-
a. )Karachi
b.) Peshawar
c. )Ellipse
d.) Paraboloid
BSNL GE JTO-Recruitment Examination
1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency parallel circuit is -
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None
2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above
3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
4.
In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)
5.
When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms
6.
A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies
7.
The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming
8.
A 'trimmer' capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) 'Tunning up' a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio
9.
In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation
10.
FET's have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors
11.
The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000
12.
AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode
13.
When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current
14.
The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25
15.
A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate
16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero
17.
In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected
18.
The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform
19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies
20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –
22. Thevenin's equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –
23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W
24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W
25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –
26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –
28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket
29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction
31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr
32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3
33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none
34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.
36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.
37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy
38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero
39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth
40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none
41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code
42.
The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12
43.
The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200
44.
The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points 'r'
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2
45.
In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr
46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is
47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.
48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group
49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2
50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-
51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.
52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above
53. The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA
54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor
55. Crossover distortion occurs in --- amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB
56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to ---dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2
57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000
58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz
59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n
60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999
61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-
62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101
63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns
64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100
65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar
66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.
67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode
68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800
69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –
a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.
71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown in figure
72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct
73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at - 2. The gain margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB
74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48
75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis
76.
Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and the satellite.
77. The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero
78. 78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
79. 79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power
80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker
81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse
82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b
83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite
84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave
85.
Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift
86.
In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode
87.
PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter
88.
A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect
89.
LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased
90.
Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading
91.
8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None
92.
The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7
93.
In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None
94.
A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.
95.
RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above
96.
A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit
97.
On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do
98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable
99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic
101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None
102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary 'may' indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request
103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above
104. 1The manager is usually strict but in Madhav's case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient
105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession
106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling
107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these
108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu
109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these
110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma
111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha
112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open
113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan
114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE
115. . Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu
116. . The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao
117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members
118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra
119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha
120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None
2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above
3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
4.
In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)
5.
When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms
6.
A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies
7.
The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming
8.
A 'trimmer' capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) 'Tunning up' a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio
9.
In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation
10.
FET's have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors
11.
The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000
12.
AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode
13.
When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current
14.
The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25
15.
A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate
16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero
17.
In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected
18.
The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform
19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies
20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –
22. Thevenin's equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –
23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W
24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W
25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –
26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –
28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket
29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction
31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr
32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3
33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none
34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.
36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.
37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy
38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero
39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth
40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none
41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code
42.
The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12
43.
The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200
44.
The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points 'r'
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2
45.
In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr
46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is
47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.
48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group
49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2
50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-
51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.
52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above
53. The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA
54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor
55. Crossover distortion occurs in --- amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB
56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to ---dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2
57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000
58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz
59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n
60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999
61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-
62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101
63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns
64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100
65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar
66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.
67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode
68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800
69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –
a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.
71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown in figure
72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct
73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at - 2. The gain margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB
74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48
75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis
76.
Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and the satellite.
77. The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero
78. 78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
79. 79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power
80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker
81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse
82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b
83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite
84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave
85.
Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift
86.
In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode
87.
PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter
88.
A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect
89.
LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased
90.
Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading
91.
8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None
92.
The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7
93.
In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None
94.
A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.
95.
RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above
96.
A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit
97.
On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do
98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable
99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic
101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None
102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary 'may' indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request
103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above
104. 1The manager is usually strict but in Madhav's case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient
105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession
106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling
107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these
108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu
109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these
110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma
111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha
112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open
113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan
114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE
115. . Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu
116. . The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao
117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members
118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra
119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha
120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
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